Fundamentals of Nursing Practice Test Set 1

Posted by: Matt Vera in Practice Test December 22, 2011 Last updated on April 19th, 2012 10 Comments 16 Views

PT-Fundamentals of Nursing Set I Test yourself! This is a simulated interactive test for Foundations of Professional Nursing Practice or Test I of the Nursing Licensure Examinations.

Directions

All questions will be shown after your press the start button.
All test questions are randomly arranged
All choices are randomly arranged
Explanation for the answer will be given after the quiz, be sure to read them.
This test contains 25 items covering fundamentals of nursing, research, medication and many more.
To add up to the challenge, TIME yourself during the examination period.
Read each question carefully!
Relax…take a deep long breath…and if you’re ready, click on the start button below.

Foundations of Nursing Practice

Please wait while the activity loads.
If this activity does not load, try refreshing your browser. Also, this page requires javascript. Please visit using a browser with javascript enabled.

If loading fails, click here to try again

This is a simulated test for the Philippine Nursing Licensure Examination part I, entitled: Foundations of Nursing Practice.

Start

Congratulations - you have completed Foundations of Nursing Practice.

You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%.

Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

Nurse Marlon prepares to perform an otoscopic examination on a female client. For proper visualization, the nurse should position the client's ear by:

A	Pulling the lobule down and forward
B	Pulling the helix up and back
C	Pulling the lobule down and back
D	Pulling the helix up and forward

Question 1 Explanation:

To perform an otoscopic examination on an adult, the nurse grasps the helix of the ear and pulls it up and back to straighten the ear canal. For a child, the nurse grasps the helix and pulls it down to straighten the ear canal. Pulling the lobule in any direction wouldn't straighten the ear canal for visualization.

Question 2

Nurse Labs is assigned to the following clients. The client that the nurse would see first after endorsement?

A	A 34 year-old post operative appendectomy client of five hours who is complaining of pain.
B	A 44 year-old myocardial infarction (MI) client who is complaining of nausea.
C	A 63 year-old post operative’s abdominal hysterectomy client of three days whose incisional dressing is saturated with serosanguinous fluid.
D	A 26 year-old client admitted for dehydration whose intravenous (IV) has infiltrated.

Question 2 Explanation:

Nausea is a symptom of impending myocardial infarction (MI) and should be assessed immediately so that treatment can be instituted and further damage to the heart is avoided.

Question 3

Which instruction should nurse Tom give to a male client who is having external radiation therapy:

A	Protect the irritated skin from sunlight.
B	Eat 3 to 4 hours before treatment.
C	Apply lotion or oil to the radiated area when it is red or sore.
D	Wash the skin over regularly.

Question 3 Explanation:

Irradiated skin is very sensitive and must be protected with clothing or sunblock. The priority approach is the avoidance of strong sunlight.

Question 4

A newly admitted female client was diagnosed with agranulocytosis. The nurse formulates which priority nursing diagnosis?

A	Constipation
B	Deficient knowledge
C	Risk for infection
D	Diarrhea

Question 4 Explanation:

Agranulocytosis is characterized by a reduced number of leukocytes (leucopenia) and neutrophils (neutropenia) in the blood. The client is at high risk for infection because of the decreased body defenses against microorganisms. Deficient knowledge related to the nature of the disorder may be appropriate diagnosis but is not the priority.

Question 5

Dr. G writes the following order for the client who has been recently admitted “Digoxin .125 mg P.O. once daily.” To prevent a dosage error, how should the nurse document this order onto the medication administration record?

A	“Digoxin 0.125 mg P.O. once daily”
B	“Digoxin 0.1250 mg P.O. once daily”
C	“Digoxin .125 mg P.O. once daily”
D	“Digoxin .1250 mg P.O. once daily”

Question 5 Explanation:

The nurse should always place a zero before a decimal point so that no one misreads the figure, which could result in a dosage error. The nurse should never insert a zero at the end of a dosage that includes a decimal point because this could be misread, possibly leading to a tenfold increase in the dosage.

Question 6

Nurse Nam attends an educational conference on leadership styles. The nurse is sitting with a nurse employed at a large trauma center who states that the leadership style at the trauma center is task-oriented and directive. The nurse determines that the leadership style used at the trauma center is:

A	Democratic.
B	Autocratic.
C	Laissez-faire.
D	Situational

Question 6 Explanation:

The autocratic style of leadership is a task-oriented and directive.

Question 7

A male client who has severe burns is receiving H2 receptor antagonist therapy. The nurse In-charge knows the purpose of this therapy is to:

A	Facilitate protein synthesis.
B	Enhance gas exchange
C	Block prostaglandin synthesis
D	Prevent stress ulcer

Question 7 Explanation:

Curling’s ulcer occurs as a generalized stress response in burn patients. This results in a decreased production of mucus and increased secretion of gastric acid. The best treatment for this prophylactic use of antacids and H2 receptor blockers.

Question 8

She finds out that some managers have benevolent-authoritative style of management. Which of the following behaviors will she exhibit most likely?

A	Communicates downward to staffs.
B	Gives economic and ego awards.
C	Have condescending trust and confidence in their subordinates.
D	Allows decision making among subordinates.

Question 8 Explanation:

Benevolent-authoritative managers pretentiously show their trust and confidence to their followers.

Question 9

A male client is admitted and diagnosed with acute pancreatitis after a holiday celebration of excessive food and alcohol. Which assessment finding reflects this diagnosis?

A	Presence of crackles in both lung fields.
B	Blood pressure above normal range.
C	Hyperactive bowel sounds
D	Sudden onset of continuous epigastric and back pain.

Question 9 Explanation:

The autodigestion of tissue by the pancreatic enzymes results in pain from inflammation, edema, and possible hemorrhage. Continuous, unrelieved epigastric or back pain reflects the inflammatory process in the pancreas.

Question 10

A male client is being transferred to the nursing unit for admission after receiving a radium implant for bladder cancer. The nurse in-charge would take which priority action in the care of this client?

A	Admit the client into a private room.
B	Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
C	Place client on reverse isolation.
D	Encourage family and friends to visit.

Question 10 Explanation:

The client who has a radiation implant is placed in a private room and has a limited number of visitors. This reduces the exposure of others to the radiation.

Question 11

Nurse Amileen is aware that the following is true about functional nursing

A	One-to-one nurse patient ratio.
B	Concentrates on tasks and activities.
C	Emphasize the use of group collaboration.
D	Provides continuous, coordinated and comprehensive nursing services.

Question 11 Explanation:

Functional nursing is focused on tasks and activities and not on the care of the patients.

Question 12

Nurse Hazel will administer a unit of whole blood, which priority information should the nurse have about the client?

A	Blood pressure and pulse rate.
B	Height and weight.
C	Hgb and Hct levels.
D	Calcium and potassium levels

Question 12 Explanation:

The baseline must be established to recognize the signs of an anaphylactic or hemolytic reaction to the transfusion.

Question 13

Nurse Michelle witnesses a female client sustain a fall and suspects that the leg may be broken. The nurse takes which priority action?

A	Takes a set of vital signs.
B	Reassure the client that everything will be alright.
C	Call the radiology department for X-ray.
D	Immobilize the leg before moving the client.

Question 13 Explanation:

If the nurse suspects a fracture, splinting the area before moving the client is imperative. The nurse should call for emergency help if the client is not hospitalized and call for a physician for the hospitalized client.

Question 14

The nurse In-charge in labor and delivery unit administered a dose of terbutaline to a client without checking the client’s pulse. The standard that would be used to determine if the nurse was negligent is:

A	The statement in the drug literature about administration of terbutaline.
B	The physician’s orders.
C	The actions of a reasonably prudent nurse with similar education and experience.
D	The action of a clinical nurse specialist who is recognized expert in the field.

Question 14 Explanation:

The standard of care is determined by the average degree of skill, care, and diligence by nurses in similar circumstances.

Question 15

Nurse Gray places a client in a four-point restraint following orders from the physician. The client care plan should include:

A	Socialize with other patients once a shift.
B	Provide diversional activities.
C	Assess temperature frequently.
D	Check circulation every 15-30 minutes.

Question 15 Explanation:

Restraints encircle the limbs, which place the client at risk for circulation being restricted to the distal areas of the extremities. Checking the client’s circulation every 15-30 minutes will allow the nurse to adjust the restraints before injury from decreased blood flow occurs.

Question 16

In assisting a female client for immediate surgery, the nurse In-charge is aware that she should:

A	Encourage the client to void following preoperative medication.
B	Assist the client in removing dentures and nail polish.
C	Explore the client’s fears and anxieties about the surgery.
D	Encourage the client to drink water prior to surgery.

Question 16 Explanation:

Dentures, hairpins, and combs must be removed. Nail polish must be removed so that cyanosis can be easily monitored by observing the nail beds.

Question 17

The doctor orders hourly urine output measurement for a postoperative male client. The nurse Trish records the following amounts of output for 2 consecutive hours: 8 a.m.: 50 ml; 9 a.m.: 60 ml. Based on these amounts, which action should the nurse take?

A	Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
B	Continue to monitor and record hourly urine output
C	Notify the physician
D	Increase the I.V. fluid infusion rate

Question 17 Explanation:

Normal urine output for an adult is approximately 1 ml/minute (60 ml/hour). Therefore, this client's output is normal. Beyond continued evaluation, no nursing action is warranted.

Question 18

The physician prescribes a loop diuretic for a client. When administering this drug, the nurse anticipates that the client may develop which electrolyte imbalance?

A	Hypernatremia
B	Hypervolemia
C	Hypokalemia
D	Hyperkalemia

Question 18 Explanation:

A loop diuretic removes water and, along with it, sodium and potassium. This may result in hypokalemia, hypovolemia, and hyponatremia.

Question 19

A newly admitted female client was diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis. Which nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority?

A	Excess fluid volume related to peripheral vascular disease.
B	Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion related to venous congestion.
C	Impaired gas exchange related to increased blood flow.
D	Risk for injury related to edema.

Question 19 Explanation:

Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion related to venous congestion takes the highest priority because venous inflammation and clot formation impede blood flow in a client with deep vein thrombosis.

Question 20

Nurse Trish is caring for a female client with a history of GI bleeding, sickle cell disease, and a platelet count of 22,000/μl. The female client is dehydrated and receiving dextrose 5% in half-normal saline solution at 150 ml/hr. The client complains of severe bone pain and is scheduled to receive a dose of morphine sulfate. In administering the medication, Nurse Trish should avoid which route?

A	Oral
B	I.M
C	S.C
D	I.V

Question 20 Explanation:

With a platelet count of 22,000/μl, the clients tends to bleed easily. Therefore, the nurse should avoid using the I.M. route because the area is a highly vascular and can bleed readily when penetrated by a needle. The bleeding can be difficult to stop.

Question 21

Tommy, a basketball player twist his right ankle while playing on the court and seeks care for ankle pain and swelling. After the nurse applies ice to the ankle for 30 minutes, which statement by Tony suggests that ice application has been effective?

A	“I need something stronger for pain relief”
B	“My ankle looks less swollen now”.
C	“My ankle feels warm”.
D	“My ankle appears redder now”.

Question 21 Explanation:

Ice application decreases pain and swelling. Continued or increased pain, redness, and increased warmth are signs of inflammation that shouldn't occur after ice application

Question 22

A female client with a fecal impaction frequently exhibits which clinical manifestation?

A	Hard, brown, formed stools
B	Liquid or semi-liquid stools
C	Loss of urge to defecate
D	Increased appetite

Question 22 Explanation:

Passage of liquid or semi-liquid stools results from seepage of unformed bowel contents around the impacted stool in the rectum. Clients with fecal impaction don't pass hard, brown, formed stools because the feces can't move past the impaction. These clients typically report the urge to defecate (although they can't pass stool) and a decreased appetite.

Question 23

Which dietary guidelines are important for nurse Oliver to implement in caring for the client with burns?

A	Monitor intake to prevent weight gain.
B	Provide high-protein, high-carbohydrate diet.
C	Provide high-fiber, high-fat diet
D	Provide ice chips or water intake.

Question 23 Explanation:

A positive nitrogen balance is important for meeting metabolic needs, tissue repair, and resistance to infection. Caloric goals may be as high as 5000 calories per day.

Question 24

A male client is receiving total parenteral nutrition suddenly demonstrates signs and symptoms of an air embolism. What is the priority action by the nurse?

A	Notify the physician.
B	Place the client in high-Fowlers position.
C	Stop the total parenteral nutrition.
D	Place the client on the left side in the Trendelenburg position.

Question 24 Explanation:

Lying on the left side may prevent air from flowing into the pulmonary veins. The Trendelenburg position increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases the amount of blood pulled into the vena cava during aspiration.

Question 25

Which type of medication order might read "Vitamin K 10 mg I.M. daily × 3 days?"

A	Single order
B	Standing order
C	Stat order
D	Standard written order

Question 25 Explanation:

This is a standard written order. Prescribers write a single order for medications given only once. A stat order is written for medications given immediately for an urgent client problem. A standing order, also known as a protocol, establishes guidelines for treating a particular disease or set of symptoms in special care areas such as the coronary care unit. Facilities also may institute medication protocols that specifically designate drugs that a nurse may not give.

Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results

There are 25 questions to complete.

Found through:

nursing practice july 2012, fundamental of nursing practice test, nursing practice test, nursing fundamentals practice tests, practice nursing fundamentals test, philippine nurse test questions, nursing review fundamental of professional nursing practice questions

Ryle
depressing! :/
nash ayala
wahahahaahh ready na akong mag board for december 23/25..:)
HEAT!
I got only 17! kainis…..
http://www.facebook.com/cazcaz.cas Cazcaz Cas
yeah 20/25..ok na
Limey
Depressed with my score of 18/25. Geez!
YankiedeVera
i got 17 only
YankiedeVera
look at items 6 and 9…The rationales are contrasting with marked correct answers.thanks.
gabriellejen
22…:)
Mia
24 too…
drake
please check items 8,10 and 23.
The rationales are contrasting with marked correct answers.
thanks.

Nurseslabs For All Your Nursing Needs

Fundamentals of Nursing Practice Test Set 1

Directions

Foundations of Nursing Practice

Found through:

Related Articles