Is your knowledge about the concepts of Fundamentals of Nursing enough? Take our challenge and answer this 25-item exam about Fundamentals of Nursing! For more practice questions, visit our NCLEX Practice Questions page.
EXAM TIP: Minimize distractions. Procrastination is something we are all guilty of. Everyone puts things off until the last minute sometimes, but procrastinators chronically bypass difficult tasks and intentionally look for distractions. Swear that your devices are out of reach until study time is done.
Happiness does not come from doing easy work but from the afterglow of satisfaction that comes after the achievement of a difficult task that demanded our best.
— Theodore Isaac Rubin
Topics or concepts included in this exam are:
- Nursing Jurisprudence
- Informed consent
To make the most out of this quiz, follow the guidelines below:
- Read each question carefully and choose the best answer.
- You are given one minute per question. Spend your time wisely!
- Answers and rationales are given below. Be sure to read them.
- If you need more clarifications, please direct them to the comments section.
In Exam Mode: All questions are shown in random and the results, answers and rationales (if any) will only be given after you’ve finished the quiz. You are given 1 minute per question, a total of 25 minutes in this quiz.
Fundamentals of Nursing NCLEX Practice Quiz 12 (25 Questions)
Practice Mode: This is an interactive version of the Text Mode. All questions are given on a single page and correct answers, rationales or explanations (if any) are immediately shown after you have selected an answer. No time limit for this exam.
Fundamentals of Nursing NCLEX Practice Quiz 12 (25 Questions)
In Text Mode: All questions and answers are given for reading and answering at your own pace. You can also copy this exam and make a printout.
1. All of the following can cause tachycardia except:
2. Palpating the midclavicular line is the correct technique for assessing
A. Baseline vital signs
B. Systolic blood pressure
C. Respiratory rate
D. Apical pulse
3. The absence of which pulse may not be a significant finding when a patient is admitted to the hospital?
4. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
A. An alert, chronic arthritic patient treated with steroids and aspirin
B. An 88-year old incontinent patient with gastric cancer who is confined to his bed at home
C. An apathetic 63-year old COPD patient receiving nasal oxygen via cannula
D. A confused 78-year old patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) who requires assistance to get out of bed.
5. The physician orders the administration of high-humidity oxygen by face mask and placement of the patient in a high Fowler’s position. After assessing Mrs. Paul, the nurse writes the following nursing diagnosis: Impaired gas exchange related to increased secretions. Which of the following nursing interventions has the greatest potential for improving this situation?
A. Encourage the patient to increase her fluid intake to 200 ml every 2 hours
B. Place a humidifier in the patient’s room.
C. Continue administering oxygen by high humidity face mask
D. Perform chest physiotherapy on a regular schedule
6. The most common deficiency seen in alcoholics is:
D. Pantothenic acid
7. Which of the following statement is incorrect about a patient with dysphagia?
A. The patient will find pureed or soft foods, such as custards, easier to swallow than water
B. Fowler’s or semi Fowler’s position reduces the risk of aspiration during swallowing
C. The patient should always feed himself
D. The nurse should perform oral hygiene before assisting with feeding.
8. To assess the kidney function of a patient with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter, the nurse measures his hourly urine output. She should notify the physician if the urine output is:
A. Less than 30 ml/hour
B. 64 ml in 2 hours
C. 90 ml in 3 hours
D. 125 ml in 4 hours
9. Certain substances increase the amount of urine produced. These include:
A. Caffeine-containing drinks, such as coffee and cola.
C. Urinary analgesics
D. Kaolin with pectin (Kaopectate)
10. A male patient who had surgery 2 days ago for head and neck cancer is about to make his first attempt to ambulate outside his room. The nurse notes that he is steady on his feet and that his vision was unaffected by the surgery. Which of the following nursing interventions would be appropriate?
A. Encourage the patient to walk in the hall alone
B. Discourage the patient from walking in the hall for a few more days
C. Accompany the patient for his walk.
D. Consult a physical therapist before allowing the patient to ambulate
11. A patient has exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) manifested by shortness of breath; orthopnea: thick, tenacious secretions; and a dry hacking cough. An appropriate nursing diagnosis would be:
A. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick, tenacious secretions.
B. Ineffective airway clearance related to dry, hacking cough.
C. Ineffective individual coping to COPD.
D. Pain related to immobilization of affected leg.
12. Mrs. Lim begins to cry as the nurse discusses hair loss. The best response would be:
A. “Don’t worry. It’s only temporary”
B. “Why are you crying? I didn’t get to the bad news yet”
C. “Your hair is really pretty”
D. “I know this will be difficult for you, but your hair will grow back after the completion of chemotherapy”
13. An additional Vitamin C is required during all of the following periods except:
B. Young adulthood
14. A prescribed amount of oxygen s needed for a patient with COPD to prevent:
A. Cardiac arrest related to increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood (PaCO2)
B. Circulatory overload due to hypervolemia
C. Respiratory excitement
D. Inhibition of the respiratory hypoxic stimulus
15. After 1 week of hospitalization, Mr. Gray develops hypokalemia. Which of the following is the most significant symptom of his disorder?
B. Increased pulse rate and blood pressure
C. Muscle weakness
D. Muscle irritability
16. Which of the following nursing interventions promotes patient safety?
A. Asses the patient’s ability to ambulate and transfer from a bed to a chair
B. Demonstrate the signal system to the patient
C. Check to see that the patient is wearing his identification band
D. All of the above
17. Studies have shown that about 40% of patients fall out of bed despite the use of side rails; this has led to which of the following conclusions?
A. Side rails are ineffective
B. Side rails should not be used
C. Side rails are a deterrent that prevent a patient from falling out of bed.
D. Side rails are a reminder to a patient not to get out of bed
18. Examples of patients suffering from impaired awareness include all of the following except:
A. A semiconscious or over fatigued patient
B. A disoriented or confused patient
C. A patient who cannot care for himself at home
D. A patient demonstrating symptoms of drugs or alcohol withdrawal
19. The most common injury among elderly persons is:
20. The most common psychogenic disorder among elderly person is:
21. Which of the following vascular system changes results from aging?
A. Increased peripheral resistance of the blood vessels
B. Decreased blood flow
C. Increased workload of the left ventricle
D. All of the above
22. Which of the following is the most common cause of dementia among elderly persons?
23. The nurse’s most important legal responsibility after a patient’s death in a hospital is:
A. Obtaining a consent of an autopsy
B. Notifying the coroner or medical examiner
C. Labeling the corpse appropriately
D. Ensuring that the attending physician issues the death certification
24. Before rigor mortis occurs, the nurse is responsible for:
A. Providing a complete bath and dressing change
B. Placing one pillow under the body’s head and shoulders
C. Removing the body’s clothing and wrapping the body in a shroud
D. Allowing the body to relax normally
25. When a patient in the terminal stages of lung cancer begins to exhibit loss of consciousness, a major nursing priority is to:
A. Protect the patient from injury
B. Insert an airway
C. Elevate the head of the bed
D. Withdraw all pain medications
Answers and Rationale
The answers and rationale below will give you a better understanding of the exam. Counter-check your answers to those below. If you have any disputes or objects, please direct them to the comments section.
1. Answer: D. Parasympathetic nervous system stimulation
- Option D: Parasympathetic nervous system stimulation of the heart decreases the heart rate as well as the force of contraction, rate of impulse conduction and blood flow through the coronary vessels. Fever, exercise, and sympathetic stimulation all increase the heart rate.
2. Answer: D. Apical pulse
- Option D: The apical pulse (the pulse at the apex of the heart) is located on the midclavicular line at the fourth, fifth, or sixth intercostal space. Base line vital signs include pulse rate, temperature, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. Blood pressure is typically assessed at the antecubital fossa, and respiratory rate is assessed best by observing chest movement with each inspiration and expiration.
3. Answer: C. Pedal
- Option C: Because the pedal pulse cannot be detected in 10% to 20% of the population, its absence is not necessarily a significant finding. However, the presence or absence of the pedal pulse should be documented upon admission so that changes can be identified during the hospital stay.
- Options A, B, and D: Absence of the apical, radial, or femoral pulse is abnormal and should be investigated.
4. Answer: B. An 88-year old incontinent patient with gastric cancer who is confined to his bed at home
- Option B: Pressure ulcers are most likely to develop in patients with impaired mental status, mobility, activity level, nutrition, circulation and bladder or bowel control. Age is also a factor. Thus, the 88-year old incontinent patient who has impaired nutrition (from gastric cancer) and is confined to bed is at greater risk.
5. Answer: A. Encourage the patient to increase her fluid intake to 200 ml every 2 hours
- Option A: Adequate hydration thins and loosens pulmonary secretions and also helps to replace fluids lost from elevated temperature, diaphoresis, dehydration, and dyspnea.
- Options B, C, and D: High-humidity air and chest physiotherapy help liquefy and mobilize secretions.
6. Answer: A. Thiamine
- Option A: Chronic alcoholism commonly results in thiamine deficiency and other symptoms of malnutrition.
7. Answer: C. The patient should always feed himself
- Option C: A patient with dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) requires assistance with feeding. Feeding himself is a long-range expected outcome.
- Options A, B, and D: Soft foods, Fowler’s or semi-Fowler’s position, and oral hygiene before eating should be part of the feeding regimen.
8. Answer: A. Less than 30 ml/hour
- Option A: A urine output of less than 30ml/hour indicates hypovolemia or oliguria, which is related to kidney function and inadequate fluid intake.
9. Answer: A. Caffeine-containing drinks, such as coffee and cola.
- Option A: Fluids containing caffeine have a diuretic effect.
- Options B and C: Beets and urinary analgesics, such as Pyridium (Phenazopyridine), can color urine red.
- Option D: Kaopectate is an antidiarrheal medication.
10. Answer: C. Accompany the patient for his walk.
- Option C: Accompanying him will offer moral support, enabling him to face the rest of the world.
- Option A: A hospitalized surgical patient leaving his room for the first time fears rejection and others staring at him, so he should not walk alone.
- Option B: Patients should begin ambulation as soon as possible after surgery to decrease complications and to regain strength and confidence.
- Option D: Waiting to consult a physical therapist is unnecessary.
11. Answer: A. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick, tenacious secretions.
- Option A: Thick, tenacious secretions, a dry, hacking cough, orthopnea, and shortness of breath are signs of ineffective airway clearance.
- Option B: Ineffective airway clearance related to dry, hacking cough is incorrect because the cough is not the reason for the ineffective airway clearance.
- Option C: Ineffective individual coping related to COPD is wrong because the etiology for a nursing diagnosis should not be a medical diagnosis (COPD) and because no data indicate that the patient is coping ineffectively.
- Option D: Pain related to immobilization of affected leg would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient with a leg fracture.
12. Answer: D. “I know this will be difficult for you, but your hair will grow back after the completion of chemotherapy”
- Option D: “I know this will be difficult” acknowledges the problem and suggests a resolution to it.
- Option A: “Don’t worry..” offers some relief but doesn’t recognize the patient’s feelings.
- Option B: “..I didn’t get to the bad news yet” would be inappropriate at any time.
- Option C: “Your hair is really pretty” offers no consolation or alternatives to the patient.
13. Answer: B. Young adulthood
- Option B: Additional Vitamin C is needed in growth periods, such as infancy and childhood, and during pregnancy to supply demands for fetal growth and maternal tissues. Other conditions requiring extra vitamin C include wound healing, fever, infection and stress.
14. Answer: D. Inhibition of the respiratory hypoxic stimulus
- Option D: Delivery of more than 2 liters of oxygen per minute to a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), who is usually in a state of compensated respiratory acidosis (retaining carbon dioxide (CO2)), can inhibit the hypoxic stimulus for respiration.
- Option A: An increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood (PACO2) would not initially result in cardiac arrest.
- Options B and C: Circulatory overload and respiratory excitement have no relevance to the question.
15. Answer: C. Muscle weakness
- Option C: Presenting symptoms of hypokalemia ( a serum potassium level below 3.5 mEq/liter) include muscle weakness, chronic fatigue, and cardiac dysrhythmias. The combined effects of inadequate food intake and prolonged diarrhea can deplete the potassium stores of a patient with GI problems.
16. Answer: D. All of the above
- Option D: Assisting a patient with ambulation and transfer from a bed to a chair allows the nurse to evaluate the patient’s ability to carry out these functions safely. Demonstrating the signal system and providing an opportunity for a return demonstration ensures that the patient knows how to operate the equipment and encourages him to call for assistance when needed. Checking the patient’s identification band verifies the patient’s identity and prevents identification mistakes in drug administration.
17. Answer: D. Side rails are a reminder to a patient not to get out of bed
- Option D: Since about 40% of patients fall out of bed despite the use of side rails, side rails cannot be said to prevent falls; however, they do serve as a reminder that the patient should not get out of bed.
- Options A, B, and C: The other answers are incorrect interpretations of the statistical data.
18. Answer: C. A patient who cannot care for himself at home
- Option C: A patient who cannot care for himself at home does not necessarily have impaired awareness; he may simply have some degree of immobility.
19. Answer: D. Hip fracture
- Option D: Hip fracture, the most common injury among elderly persons, usually results from osteoporosis.
- Options A, B, and C: The other answers are diseases that can occur in the elderly from physiologic changes.
20. Answer: A. Depression
- Option A: Depression typically begins before the onset of old age and usually is caused by psychosocial, genetic, or biochemical factors.
- Options B, C, and D: Sleep disturbances, inability to concentrate and decreased appetite are symptoms of depression, the most common psychogenic disorder among elderly persons. Other symptoms include diminished memory, apathy, disinterest in appearance, withdrawal, and irritability.
21. Answer: D. All of the above
- Option D: Aging decreases the elasticity of the blood vessels, which leads to increased peripheral resistance and decreased blood flow. These changes, in turn, increase the workload of the left ventricle.
22. Answer: D. Alzheimer’s disease
- Option D: Alzheimer;s disease, sometimes known as senile dementia of the Alzheimer’s type or primary degenerative dementia, is an insidious; progressive, irreversible, and degenerative disease of the brain whose etiology is still unknown.
- Option A: Parkinson’s disease is a neurologic disorder caused by lesions in the extrapyramidal system and manifested by tremors, muscle rigidity, hypokinesia, dysphagia, and dysphonia.
- Option B: Multiple sclerosis, a progressive, degenerative disease involving demyelination of the nerve fibers, usually begins in young adulthood and is marked by periods of remission and exacerbation.
- Option C: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, a disease marked by progressive degeneration of the neurons, eventually results in atrophy of all the muscles; including those necessary for respiration.
23. Answer: C. Labeling the corpse appropriately
- Option C: The nurse is legally responsible for labeling the corpse when death occurs in the hospital.
- Options A and B: She may be involved in obtaining consent for an autopsy or notifying the coroner or medical examiner of a patient’s death; however, she is not legally responsible for performing these functions.
- Option D: The attending physician may need information from the nurse to complete the death certificate, but he is responsible for issuing it.
24. Answer: B. Placing one pillow under the body’s head and shoulders
- Option B: The nurse must place a pillow under the deceased person’s head and shoulders to prevent blood from settling in the face and discoloring it.
- Option A: She is required to bathe only soiled areas of the body since the mortician will wash the entire body.
- Option C: Before wrapping the body in a shroud, the nurse places a clean gown on the body and closes the eyes and mouth.
25. Answer: A. Protect the patient from injury
- Option A: Ensuring the patient’s safety is the most essential action at this time.
- Options B, C, and D: The other nursing actions may be necessary but are not a major priority.
You may also like these quizzes:
- 3,500+ NCLEX-RN Practice Questions for Free – Tons of practice questions for various topics in the NCLEX-RN!
- Fundamentals of Nursing Study Guides
Fundamentals of Nursing
Practice exams about the foundations and fundamentals of nursing.
- Fundamentals of Nursing #1 | 25 Questions
- Fundamentals of Nursing #2 | 30 Questions
- Fundamentals of Nursing #3 | 30 Questions
- Fundamentals of Nursing #4 | 20 Questions
- Fundamentals of Nursing #5 | 20 Questions
- Fundamentals of Nursing #6 | 20 Questions
- Fundamentals of Nursing #7 | 20 Questions
- Fundamentals of Nursing #8 | 20 Questions
- Fundamentals of Nursing #9 | 25 Questions
- Fundamentals of Nursing #10 | 25 Questions
- Fundamentals of Nursing #11 | 25 Questions
- Fundamentals of Nursing #12 | 25 Questions
- Fundamentals of Nursing #13 | 25 Questions
- Fundamentals of Nursing #14 | 25 Questions
- Nursing Process | 25 Questions
- Legal and Ethical Considerations | 65 Questions
- Safety and Infection Control #1 | 30 Questions
- Safety and Infection Control #2 | 20 Questions
- Safety and Infection Control #3 | 25 Questions
- Health Promotion and Maintenance | 25 Questions
- Basic Care and Comfort | 20 Questions
- Nursing Health Assessment and Pain | 30 Questions
- Pain Management | 25 Questions
- Nutrition | 10 Questions
- Parenteral Nutrition | 20 Questions
- Blood Transfusion | 15 Questions
- Patient Tubes: NGT, Chest, and Tracheostomy | 20 Questions
- Patient Positioning | 15 Questions
- Cultural Diversity and Health Practices | 15 Questions
- Laboratory Values | 20 Questions