FULL-TEXT: Growth and Development (50 Questions)


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Growth and Development NCLEX Practice Questions Quiz #1 (25 Questions)


Which age group has the greatest potential to demonstrate regression when they are sick?

  • A. Infant
  • B. Toddler
  • C. Adolescent 
  • D. Young Adult

Correct Answer: B. Toddler

Regression is most seen among toddlers and it can be caused by stressful situations such as hospitalization, the arrival of a new sibling, or starting a new school. When a child regresses, he or she appears to be going backward in an earlier stage of development where he or she feels comfortable (e.g. toilet trained toddlers suddenly start wetting their pants when they become sick, thumbsucking).

  • Option A: Babies are almost entirely dependent on their caregivers. So it should come as no surprise that how parents interact with their babies has a profound effect on both their physical and mental health. Noticing and responding to these signals, whether they are cries, body movements, coos, or even words, helps them learn to trust the people and the world around them.
  • Option C: There’s no doubt the teen years can be a more challenging time to deal with a health condition. In addition to the social pressures to fit in, it’s a time of learning about and understanding their bodies. At a time when it’s natural to be concerned with body image, it can seem hard to feel different. It’s understandable that people can feel just plain sick and tired of dealing with a chronic illness once in a while.
  • Option D: Regression may happen in this age group but it is more common in toddler years. Struggling in this stage of life can result in loneliness and isolation. Loneliness can affect overall health in other ways. For example, socially isolated people tend to have unhealthier diets, exercise less, experience greater daytime fatigue, and have poorer sleep.


Which is a major concern when providing drug therapy for older adults?

  • A. Older adults may chew on tablets instead of swallowing them.
  • B. Older adults have difficulty swallowing large tablets.
  • C. Alcohol is used by older adults to cope with the multiple problems of aging.
  • D. Hepatic clearance is reduced in older adults.

Correct Answer: D. Hepatic clearance is reduced in older adults.

Age-related changes such as a reduction in total liver size and decrease in hepatic blood flow would limit the exposure of the drug to the metabolizing enzymes resulting in reduced hepatic clearance of a drug increasing its side effects.

  • Option A: Older adults may end up chewing tablets that will quickly release the effect of long-acting medications when crushed or the drug may not work properly however a physician may give smaller pills that will be easier to swallow or a liquid preparation may also be available.
  • Option B: Older adults may experience difficulty taking tablets due to swallowing problems secondary to health conditions such as stroke, dementia, Parkinson’s disease but there are other techniques to make swallowing pills easier (e.g.” pop bottle method”).
  • Option C: Alcohol is not used to cope with problems of aging since it can cause bad interactions with medications causing adverse effects. Aging can lower the body’s tolerance for alcohol. Older adults generally experience the effects of alcohol more quickly than when they were younger. This puts older adults at higher risks for falls, car crashes, and other unintentional injuries that may result from drinking.


One of the participants attending a parenting class asks the teacher “What is the leading cause of death during the first month of life?

Correct Answer: C. SIDS

According to the CDC, sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) remains to be one of the leading causes of infant death. Around 1,300 infants died in 2018 due to this condition. SIDS is defined as the sudden and unexplained death of a baby younger than 1-year-old. Most of the deaths happened between the ages of one and 6 months. Factors that increase the risk of SIDS include stomach sleeping, a sibling who died of SIDS, mothers who smoke during pregnancy, exposure to secondhand smoking, sleeping areas containing soft blankets, pillows, or toys, and a lack of prenatal care.

  • Option A: Neonatal sepsis refers to an infection involving the bloodstream in newborn infants less than 28 days old. It remains a leading cause of morbidity and mortality among neonates, especially in middle and lower-income countries. Due to the nonspecific neonatal presentation for sepsis and the high risk of mortality and morbidity without treatment, many asymptomatic neonates undergo a sepsis workup if risk factors are present and/or clinically indicated. 
  • Option B: As the most common cause of respiratory distress in premature infants, RDS occurs in about 24,000 infants born in the United States annually. It is also the most common complication of prematurity leading to significant morbidity in late preterm neonates and even mortality in very low birth weight infants.
  • Option D: Neonatal hemorrhage is also part of the leading causes of infant mortality but occurs less often than SIDS. All infants irrespective of race, sex, color, religion, national origin, etc. are known to be affected by vitamin K deficiency bleeding. In early VKDB, the incidence in infants who have not received vitamin K prophylaxis ranges from about 6% to 12%. In classic VKDB, the incidence has gone down from 0.25% to 1.5% in earlier studies to 0.01% to 0.44% in recent studies.


Which stage of development is most unstable and challenging regarding the development of personal identity?

  • A. Adolescence
  • B. Toddlerhood
  • C. Middle childhood
  • D. Young adulthood

Correct Answer: A. Adolescence

Although it occurs throughout one’s lifetime, identity development is considered to be the primary psychosocial task of adolescence or as described by Erickson on identity versus identity confusion. Individuals in this stage start to integrate their values, abilities, inner drives, and past experiences into who they are as persons.

  • Option B: Toddlers at their age focus on developing their physical, emotional, cognitive, language, and motor skills. Gaining a sense of personal control over the world is important at this stage of development. Children at this age are becoming increasingly independent and want to gain more control over what they do and how they do it. 
  • Option C: Middle childhood is a stage where children learn skills that will help them build social relationships that will prepare them for adolescence. A child’s social world expands considerably as they enter school and gain new friendships with peers. Through social interactions, children begin to develop a sense of pride in their accomplishments and abilities.
  • Option D: Young adulthood would focus on building intimate and loving relationships with other people. Romantic and sexual relationships can be an important part of this stage of life, but intimacy is more about having close, loving relationships. It includes romantic partners, but it can also encompass close, enduring friendships with people outside of the family.


Which age group would have the most tendency towards eating disorders?

  • A. Adolescence
  • B. Toddlerhood
  • C. Preschool
  • D. Infancy

Correct Answer: A. Adolescence

The adolescent stage is the time where the body starts to change and with factors including exposure from media and peer pressure that provide them the perception of an ideal body image which would then affect their dietary behaviors leading to eating disorders.

  • Option B: Gaining a sense of personal control over the world is important at this stage of development. Children at this age are becoming increasingly independent and want to gain more control over what they do and how they do it. Other important events include gaining more control over food choices, toy preferences, and clothing selection.
  • Option C: This is the age group where they become picky eaters but it would not lead to serious eating disorders. Children need to begin asserting control and power over the environment by taking initiative by planning activities, accomplishing tasks, and facing challenges.
  • Option D: During infancy, infants’ eating habits are characterized by a transition from consuming breastmilk or formula to consuming solid foods. Erikson also believed that feeding played a pivotal role in the development of trust. By feeding an infant when the child is hungry, they learn that they can trust their need for nourishment will be met.

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When assessing an older adult, the nurse may expect an increase in:

  • A. Nail growth
  • B. Skin turgor
  • C. Urine residual
  • D. Nerve conduction velocity

Correct Answer: C. Urine residual

Older adults with other health conditions such as diabetes, enlarged prostate (men), or pelvic organ prolapse (women) may cause incomplete bladder emptying resulting in increased urine residual.

  • Option A: Nail growth is expected to slow with aging due to decreased blood flow to the hands and feet. With advancing age, various changes in nail plate thickness might occur, becoming thicker, thinner, or remaining the same. Nail plate growth rates of fingernails and toenails normally average 3.0 and 1.0 mm/mo, respectively. With advancing age, starting at the age of 25 years, this rate tends to decrease by approximately 0.5% per year.
  • Option B: Skin loses its elasticity with age so the skin turgor is expected to decrease. The epidermis of the skin atrophies with age and due to changes in collagen and elastin, the skin loses its tone and elasticity.
  • Option D: Nerve conduction velocities are expected to decrease with aging. It is caused either by an injury or nerve damage. During normal aging, blood flow in the brain decreases and gets less efficient at recruiting different areas into operations. The whole group of changes taking place in the brain with aging decreases the efficiency of cell-to-cell communication, which declines the ability to retrieve and learn.


A maternity nurse is providing instruction to a new mother regarding the psychosocial development of the newborn infant. Using Erikson’s psychosocial development theory, the nurse would instruct the mother to:

  • A. Allow the newborn infant to signal a need.
  • B. Anticipate all of the needs of the newborn infant.
  • C. Avoid the newborn infant during the first 10 minutes of crying.
  • D. Allow the infant to cry, once lessen, then attend to the infant.

Correct Answer: A. Allow the newborn infant to signal a need.

If a newborn is not allowed to signal a need, the newborn will not learn how to control the environment. The primary way the caregiver can build trust with the baby is to respond when they try to communicate. Because babies can’t use words to express themselves, they use nonverbal strategies to communicate what they’re thinking and feeling at all times.

  • Option B: According to Erikson, the caregiver should not try to anticipate the newborn infant’s needs at all times but must allow the newborn infant to signal needs. Crying is one of the most common strategies babies use to communicate with their caregivers, and it carries different meanings.
  • Option C: It is important for caregivers to provide comfort to an infant by holding them closely and securely. This provides both warmth and physical contact. Feeding, bathing, and comforting your child helps them learn to trust that their needs will be met.
  • Option D: Erikson believed that a delayed or prolonged response to a newborn’s signal would inhibit the development of trust and lead to mistrust of others. By responding quickly and appropriately to the infant’s cries, the caregiver is building a foundation of trust.


A mother of a three (3)-year-old tells a clinic nurse that the child is constantly rebelling and having temper tantrums. The nurse most appropriately tells the mother to:

  • A. Punish the child every time the child says “no”, to change the behavior.
  • B. Allow the behavior because this is normal at this age period.
  • C. Set limits on the child’s behavior.
  • D. Ignore the child when this behavior occurs.

Correct Answer: C. Set limits on the child’s behavior.

Being consistent and setting limits on the child’s behavior are the necessary elements in order for the toddler to learn what is acceptable so they can understand the impact of their behaviors.

  • Option A: Saying things like “no” or “mine” and having temper tantrums are common during this period of development. Parents who are negative or who punish a child for simple mistakes can contribute to feelings of shame or self-doubt. 
  • Option B: According to Erikson, the child focuses on independence between ages 1 and 3 years. Gaining independence often means that the child has to rebel against the parents’ wishes. Children at this age are becoming increasingly independent and want to gain more control over what they do and how they do it.
  • Option D: Do not ignore the child when this behavior occurs. Instead, provide opportunities for children to be independent. Allow them to make food, clothing, and toy choices and provide reassurance that they have done a good job.


The parents of a two (2)-year-old boy arrive at a hospital for a visit. The child is in the playroom when the parents arrive. When the parents enter the playroom, the child does not readily approach the parents. The nurse interprets this behavior as indicating that:

  • A. The child is withdrawn.
  • B. The child is self-centered.
  • C. The child has adjusted to the hospitalized setting.
  • D. This is a normal pattern.

Correct Answer: D. This is a normal pattern.

The phases through which young children progress when separated from their parents include protest, despair, and denial or detachment. In the stage of despair, the child may not approach them readily or may cling to a parent. 

  • Option A: In the stage of protest, when the parents return, the child readily goes to them. The protest phase begins immediately upon separation and lasts up to weeks on end. It is indicated by outward signs of distress such as crying, tantrum behavior, and searching for the return of the parent. Protest decreases during the despair phase, and children become withdrawn and helpless.
  • Option B: While it may be frustrating to have children who appear to be self-centered, unrelenting, and impulsive, it can be comforting to learn that these traits are typical of the development of all children. When children are listened to and their feelings are accepted, they are more likely to respond to other people with understanding and compassion.
  • Option C: In denial or detachment, when the parents return, the child becomes cheerful, interested in the environment and new persons (seemingly unaware of the lost parents), friendly with the staff, and interested in developing superficial relationships.


The mother of a three (3)-year-old is concerned because her child still insists on a bottle at nap time and bedtime. Which of the following is the most appropriate suggestion to the mother?

  • A. Do not allow the child to have the bottle
  • B. Allow the bottle during naps but not at bedtime
  • C. Allow the bottle if it contains juice
  • D. Allow the bottle if it contains water

Correct Answer: D. Allow the bottle if it contains water

It is recommended that parents should wean their children off the bottle at 15-18 months of age. But If a bottle is still attached to the child at 3 years of age during naptime or bedtime, it should contain only water to prevent the risk of dental caries.

  • Option A: Generally, the last bottle to stop should be the nighttime bottle. That bottle tends to be a part of the bedtime routine and is the one that most provides comfort to babies. If you keep getting asked for a bottle, find out what the child really needs or wants and offer that instead.
  • Option B: As the parent weans the baby from the bottle, try diluting the milk in the bottle with water. For the first few days, fill half of it with water and half of it with milk. Then slowly add more water until the entire bottle is water. By that time, it’s likely that the child will lose interest and be asking for the milk that comes in a cup.
  • Option C: A toddler should never be allowed to fall asleep with a bottle containing milk, juice, soda, or sweetened water because frequent and long exposure to drinks containing sugar may cause tooth decay and cavities.


A nurse is evaluating the developmental level of a two (2)-year-old. Which of the following does the nurse expect to observe in this child?

  • A. Use a fork to eat.
  • B. Use a cup to drink.
  • C. Uses a knife for cutting food.
  • D. Pour own milk into a cup.

Correct Answer: B. Uses a cup to drink

By age 2 years, the child can use a cup and can use a spoon correctly but with some spilling. Children can start learning how to use a cup without a lid when they are 9 months old. Most experts recommend introducing utensils between 10 and 12 months, as an almost-toddler starts to show signs that she’s interested. A spoon should be first on the child’s tray, since it’s easier to use.

  • Option A: By ages 3 to 4, the child begins to use a fork. She’ll have more success with a fork as her fine motor skills get a little sharper, starting around 15 months.
  • Option C: By the end of the preschool period, the child should be able to begin to use a knife for cutting. The child can hold onto the helper’s hands as they cut the food using the knife and fork.
  • Option D: Preschoolers can pour their own drinks. Pouring is a great hand-eye exercise.  It requires self-control in the form of motor control. Autonomy is something children crave at this age, and this is certainly an activity they can do on their own when appropriate parameters are set.


The nurse is providing an educational session to new employees, and the topic is abuse to the older client. The nurse tells the employees that which client is most characteristic of a victim of abuse?

  • A. A 90-year-old woman with advanced Parkinson’s disease.
  • B. A 68-year-old man with newly diagnosed cataracts.
  • C. A 70-year-old woman with early diagnosed Lyme’s disease.
  • D. A 74-year-old man with moderate hypertension.

Correct Answer: A. A 90-year-old woman with advanced Parkinson’s disease

The typical abuse victim is a woman of advanced age with few social contacts and at least one physical or mental impairment that limits the ability to perform activities of daily living. In addition, the client usually lives alone or with the abuser and depends on the abuser for care.

  • Option B: An elderly with newly diagnosed cataracts has less chance of being a victim of elder abuse. In general, elder abuse is considered a direct action, inaction, or negligence toward an older adult that harms them or places them at risk of harm either by a person in a position of presumed trust or by an outside individual targeting the victim based on age or disability.
  • Option C: A 70-year-old woman with Lyme’s disease has less chance of being subjected to elder abuse. Older adults with dementia or other cognitive impairment are at the highest risk, with nearly five times the rate of elder abuse seen compared to older adults without dementia.
  • Option D: A man with moderate hypertension will have the least chance of being a victim of elder abuse since they are not considered to have very poor health and are not yet functionally impaired. A prevalent belief is that the increased reliance on a caregiver leads to a high caregiver burden, which may manifest as elder abuse.


The home care nurse is visiting an older female client whose husband died six months ago. Which behavior, by the client, indicates ineffective coping?

  • A. Visiting her husband’s grave once a month.
  • B. Participating in a senior citizens program.
  • C. Looking at old snapshots of her family.
  • D. Neglecting her personal grooming.

Correct Answer: D. Neglecting her personal grooming.

Coping mechanisms are behaviors used to decrease stress and anxiety. In response to a death, ineffective coping is manifested by an extreme behavior that in some instances may be harmful to the individual physically or psychologically. Neglecting personal grooming is indicative of behavior that identifies an ineffective coping behavior in the grieving process.

  • Option A: This is an effective way to help the client cope and express their feelings when grieving. Acknowledge the patient’s need to review the loss experience. In this way, the patient and family members integrate the event into their experience.
  • Option B: A senior citizen program provides activities and enrichment classes that can help the widow alleviate feelings of helplessness, loneliness, and boredom after a loss of a loved one.
  • Option C: Strengthen the patient’s efforts to go on with his or her life and normal routine. Review and point out strengths and progress to date. Encourage the patient to manage their own self-care needs for rest, sleep, nutrition, and leisure activities.


A clinic nurse assesses the communication patterns of a five (5)-month-old infant. The nurse determines that the infant is demonstrating the highest level of developmental achievement expected if the infant:

  • A. Uses simple words such as “mama”.
  • B. Uses monosyllabic babbling.
  • C. Links syllables together.
  • D. Coos when comforted.

Correct Answer: B. Uses monosyllabic babbling.

Monosyllabic babbling occurs between 3 and 6 months of age. The infant starts to produce vowels and combines them with consonants, producing syllables (e.g., ba, da, la, ga). An infant should be babbling away by now, and those babbles might even be starting to sound like real words. Five-month-olds can begin to put consonant and vowel sounds together.

  • Option A: Using simple words such as “mama” occurs between 9 and 12 months. While it can happen as early as 10 months, by 12 months, most babies will use “mama” and “dada” correctly (she may say “mama” as early as eight months, but she won’t be actually referring to her mother), plus one other word. That third word can be what’s called a “word approximation.”
  • Option C: Linking syllables together when communicating occurs between 6 and 9 months. At 18 months, most toddlers use two-word combinations. Some toddlers may combine words as early as 15 months. Factors that affect when toddlers begin combining words include when they produce their first word when they understand 50 words, and the responsiveness of caregivers at 12 months.
  • Option D: Cooing is the production of a single syllable, vowel-like sound like “aah”. It begins at birth and continues until 2 months. It is considered the first vocal milestone of a baby.


A nurse is preparing to care for a five (5)-year-old who has been placed in traction following a fracture of the femur. The nurse plans care, knowing that, which of the following is the most appropriate activity for this child?

  • A. Large picture books
  • B. A radio
  • C. Crayons and coloring book
  • D. A sports video

Correct Answer: C. Crayons and coloring book

In the preschooler, play is simple and imaginative and includes activities such as crayons and coloring books, puppets, felt and magnetic boards, and Play-Doh. They spend much of their playtime in fantasy activity, which tends to be more cooperative than play that’s focused on toys or games.

  • Option A: Large picture books are most appropriate for the infant where they start to show interest in seeing books with pictures. Regularly read books to the baby, pointing to the pictures when reading and engaging her by changing voices for different characters. Invite the little one to participate by encouraging her to laugh or act surprised by the story, touch the pictures, and turn the pages.
  • Option B: A radio is most appropriate for the adolescent. Analysis of teenage behavior during play shows that their behavior mimics and practices being an adult, which is a positive for their development. However, it is still important as a parent to hold a discussion with your child to set clear boundaries e.g. controls on the internet and phones, so that they can grow and explore their identity but still within a safe environment.
  • Option D: Sport is a great way of keeping an element of play in the life of a young adult, and if they keep engaging in sport through their adolescence they will be more likely to be active throughout the rest of adulthood.


A 16-year-old is admitted to the hospital for acute appendicitis, and an appendectomy is performed. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate to facilitate normal growth and development?

  • A. Allow the family to bring in the child’s favorite computer games.
  • B. Encourage the parents to room-in with the child.
  • C. Encourage the child to rest and read.
  • D. Allow the child to participate in activities with other individuals in the same age group when the condition permits.

Correct Answer: D. Allow the child to participate in activities with other individuals in the same age group when the condition permits.

Adolescents often are not sure whether they want their parents with them when they are hospitalized. Because of the importance of the peer group, separation from friends is a source of anxiety. Ideally, the members of the peer group will support their ill friend.

  • Option A: Adolescents love computer games, however, peer groups and spending time with friends is extremely important. Self-esteem is largely influenced by peer acceptance.
  • Option B: Having the parent’s room-in is more appropriate with a toddler or preschooler because they have a fear of separation. Going to the hospital can be overwhelming, boring, and frustrating for children. It’s normal for children to behave in some unexpected ways.
  • Option C: Reading a book while in the hospital may be appropriate, but this can isolate the child from the peer group. Set up ways for the child to keep in contact with family, friends, and schoolmates. This can be done by asking people to visit, letting the child use email or social media to keep in touch, or setting up video calls.


The mother of a nine (9)-year-old who is four (4) feet tall asks a nurse which of the following car safety devices is the most appropriate to use. The best nursing response is which of the following?

  • A. Booster belt
  • B. Seat belt
  • C. Front-facing convertible seat
  • D. Rear-facing convertible seat

Correct Answer: A. Booster belt

A belt-positioning booster seat is typically used for children whose weight or height exceeds the forward-facing limit for the car safety seat. This is applicable for ages 8-12-year-old and at least 4 feet, 9 inches tall. Booster seats can only be used with the adult lap and shoulder belt.

  • Option B: Children can start using a seat belt if they can easily rest their back against the seat of the vehicle and can bend their knees over the edge of the seat. Seatbelts must be worn correctly for them to work properly. Make sure the lap belt fits comfortably across the thighs (not the stomach) and that the child is not slouching. The shoulder strap should go across the chest and shoulder, and never goes beneath a child’s arm, behind the back, or across the neck.
  • Option C: When children outgrow their rear-facing seat, they are buckled in a forward-facing car seat until the age of five or when they reach the upper weight or height limit of the seat. Most convertible car seats can be used in the rear-facing position until a child reaches the weight limit, typically 40 to 50 pounds. At that point, the seat can be converted into a forward-facing car seat. These seats are larger and designed to stay installed in the vehicle.
  • Option D: Rear-facing–only seats are used for infants up to 22 to 45 pounds. All infants and toddlers should ride in a rear-facing seat as long as possible until they reach the highest weight or height allowed by their car safety seat manufacturer. Most convertible seats have limits that will allow children to ride rear-facing for 2 years or more.


The nurse is caring for an agitated older client with Alzheimer’s disease. Which nursing intervention most likely would calm the client?

  • A. Playing the radio.
  • B. Turning the lights out.
  • C. Putting an arm around the client’s waist.
  • D. Encouraging group participation.

Correct Answer: C. Putting an arm around the client’s waist.

Nursing interventions for the client with Alzheimer’s disease who is angry, frustrated, or hostile include decreasing environmental stimuli, approaching the client calmly and with assurance, not demanding anything from the client, and distracting the client. For the nurse to reach out, touch, hold a hand, put an arm around the waist, or in some way maintain physical contact is important.

  • Option A: Playing a radio may increase stimuli. Noise and crowds are usually excessive for the sensory neurons and can increase interference. Television and radio programs may be overstimulating and may increase agitation.
  • Option B: Turning the lights out may produce more agitation. Limit sensory stimuli and independent decision-making. This decreases frustration and distractions from the environment. Decreasing the stress of making a choice helps to promote security.
  • Option D: The client with Alzheimer’s disease would not be a candidate for group work if the client is agitated. Provide an opportunity for social interaction, but do not force interaction. Forcing interaction usually results in confusion, agitation, and hostility.


The nurse who volunteers at a senior citizens center is planning activities for the members who attend the center. Which activity would best promote health and maintenance for these senior citizens?

  • A. Gardening every day for an hour.
  • B. Aerobics 3 times a week for 30 minutes.
  • C. Sculpting twice a week for 60 minutes.
  • D. Walking 3 to 5 times a week for 30 minutes.

Correct Answer: D. Walking three (3) to five (5) times a week for 30 minutes.

Exercise and activity are essential for health promotion and maintenance in older adults and to achieve an optimal level of functioning. About half of the physical deterioration of the older client is caused by disuse rather than by the aging process or disease. One of the best exercises for an older adult is walking, progressing to a 30 minutes session three (3) to five (5) times each week. Swimming and dancing are also beneficial.

  • Option A: Gardening is a muscle-strengthening activity that can be done by an older adult for at least 2 or more days a week. Everyday gardening is not advisable. Some physical, mental, and age-related conditions must be considered when older people work in the garden, but they should not prevent people from enjoying the garden.
  • Option B: Aerobic activity considered a vigorous-intensity activity should be done for 75 minutes a week in 10 minutes duration. Aerobics or cardio exercises pretty much fit everyone but the frequency and intensity of each exercise should be considered before sticking to a particular regime.
  • Option C: Body sculpting for 60 minutes is an activity that is too vigorous for an adult. These popular workouts are well-suited for younger adults looking to bulk up or shed weight in a hurry, but they may put an unhealthy strain on older adults with joint pain, atrophied muscles, posture problems, or issues with balance.


A 16-year-old boy is hospitalized, according to Erik Erikson, what is an appropriate intervention?

  • A. Tell the friends to visit the child.
  • B. Encourage the boy to learn missed school lessons.
  • C. Call the priest to intervene.
  • D. Ask the patient’s girlfriend to visit. 

Correct Answer: A. Tell the friends to visit the child.

A 16-year-old child is in the stage of identity vs role confusion. The most significant persons in this group are their peers. Peer groups and spending time with friends is extremely important. Self-esteem is largely influenced by peer acceptance.

  • Option B: This is appropriate for children in the school-age where they need to feel productive. Children at this age begin taking pride in their work and seek recognition for their accomplishments. They are learning rules for social cooperation and appropriate behaviors.
  • Option C: The child is not dying and the situation did not even talk about the child’s belief therefore, calling the priest is unnecessary. Adolescents enjoy watching movies and playing video games. Cell phones and the internet are common means of keeping in touch with friends.
  • Option D: Allowing the patient’s girlfriend is applicable to an adolescent in the Erickson stage of intimacy vs isolation. This stage takes place during young adulthood between the ages of approximately 19 and 40.


A clinical instructor asks a nursing student to report about the psychosexual stages of development by Sigmund Freud. Which of the following explains the latency period? Select all that apply.

  • A. No psychosexual development takes place during this stage.
  • B. Energy is directed to physical and intellectual activities.
  • C. This stage begins at puberty and constitutes mature adult sexuality.
  • D. Males have a tendency to develop Oedipus Complex.
  • E. Children spend more time interacting with same-sex peers.

Correct Answer: A, B, & E

At the latency stage, sexual drives are dormant. The stage begins around the time that children enter school and become more concerned about school work, hobbies, and peer relationships. Children also usually engage in activities with peers of the same sex, which serves to consolidate a child’s gender-role identity.

  • Option A: During this stage, the superego continues to develop while the id’s energies are suppressed. Children develop social skills, values, and relationships with peers and adults outside of the family.
  • Option B: The latent period is a time of exploration in which the sexual energy is repressed or dormant. This energy is still present, but it is sublimated into other areas such as intellectual pursuits and social interactions. This stage is important in the development of social and communication skills and self-confidence.
  • Option C: This refers to the genital stage where it begins in puberty. Adolescents develop mature sexual feelings and experience pleasure from sexual relationships with others.
  • Option D: This refers to the phallic stage when children discover physical sexual differences. Children develop an incestuous desire for the opposite-sex parent (Oedipus Complex).
  • Option E: The development of the ego and superego contribute to this period of calm. The stage begins around the time that children enter into school and become more concerned with peer relationships, hobbies, and other interests.


Which of the following best describes the development of a school-age child? Select all that apply.

  • A. Death has yet no meaning.
  • B. Same-sex peers are more important than family.
  • C. School-age children are concerned about how they appear to others.
  • D. Children enjoy playing board games and sports.
  • E. Causes of injuries include bicycle crashes, head injuries, and sprains.

Correct Answer: B, D, & E

School-age children feel a greater sense of affiliation with peers of the same sex and prefer socializing with them over family members; With a decreased attention span, play for school-age children lean towards following rules designed by others such as board games and sports; With an increase in motor skills, and independence, school-age children are prone to injuries that are caused by their physical activities.

  • Option A: School-age children start to have an understanding of death and often view it as someone who “goes to heaven”. School-aged children have a more realistic understanding of death. Although death may be personified as an angel, skeleton, or ghost, this age group is starting to view death as permanent. They know that everyone dies. 
  • Option B: A child’s social world expands considerably as they enter school and gain new friendships with peers. Through social interactions, children begin to develop a sense of pride in their accomplishments and abilities.
  • Option C: School-aged children are not particularly concerned about how they appear from others but rather are more concerned with understanding social roles and responsibilities.
  • Option D: During the industry versus inferiority stage, children become capable of performing increasingly complex tasks. As a result, they strive to master new skills. Children who are encouraged and commended by parents and teachers develop a feeling of competence and belief in their abilities.
  • Option E: Children enjoy challenges and risks in play. This might be climbing trees or going fast on bikes or scooters. When children take these types of risks, they’re building physical and problem-solving skills. They’re also learning about their physical and emotional limits.


The nurse is preparing to care for a toddler who is admitted due to fever, diarrhea, and vomiting. The doctor diagnosed the child with acute gastroenteritis. Which interventions are appropriate for the child? Select all that apply.

  • A. Limit parental presence to promote faster recovery.
  • B. Inform the child of his scheduled ultrasound on day 5 of his hospitalization. 
  • C. Allow to bring his favorite pillow or provide activity e.g., blowing bubbles.
  • D. Allow the child to hold the thermometer before getting the temperature.
  • E. Provide an option between fruit cups and jellies for dessert.

Correct Answer: C, D, & E

Allowing the child to bring familiar objects such as a favorite pillow or blanket to promote comfort; Letting the child hold medical equipment will lessen the fear and stress from the toddler.

  • Option A: Parental stay in the hospital is encouraged instead to combat separation anxiety and the fear of being abandoned. The parents should be present and participate in their toddler’s care as much as possible.
  • Option B: A toddler should be told at least a day or two prior to a procedure. An announcement that is too advanced would make the child more anxious. Toddlers have extremely short attention spans — keep this in mind as you talk to your child about the hospital (give small pieces of information at a time).
  • Option C: Allow your child to carry security objects to procedures (blanket, stuffed animal). Play in the hospital makes the hospital environment less scary and more child-friendly. It also encourages children to focus on activity, rather than on their illness.
  • Option D: Toddlers are building a sense of autonomy — encourage them to play and do things on their own. Allowing them to hold an instrument like a thermometer may assure them that it would not hurt them to have their temperature taken.
  • Option E: Toddlers like saying, “NO” — Give options between two things rather than yes or no questions. Offer choices when appropriate. For instance, taking medications is not a choice, but drinking the medicine through a cup or syringe is a choice your child can make on his/her own.


A nurse instructor is preparing to conduct a seminar about Piaget’s Theory of Cognitive Development. The current topic is the concrete operational stage. Which of the following milestones during this stage should be included in the discussion, except?

  • A. Ability to think logic about objects and events.
  • B. Ability to understand that an object does not affect its number, length, volume, or mass when it changes appearance or shape.
  • C. Increased classification skills.
  • D. Ability to exhibit propositional thought.
  • E. Ability to perform mathematical problems in both addition and subtraction 

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Correct Answer: D. Ability to exhibit propositional thought.

This is achieved during the formal operational stage. Propositional thought is the ability of an individual to evaluate the logic of prepositions without referring to real-world circumstances.

  • Option A: Piaget determined that children in the concrete operational stage were fairly good at the use of inductive logic (inductive reasoning). During this stage, children begin to think logically about concrete events. Their thinking becomes more logical and organized, but still very concrete.
  • Option B: Another key development at this stage is the understanding that when something changes in shape or appearance it is still the same, a concept known as conservation. They begin to understand the concept of conservation; that the amount of liquid in a short, wide cup is equal to that in a tall, skinny glass, for example.
  • Option C: Children begin using inductive logic, or reasoning from specific information to a general principle. This growing ability to mentally manipulate information and think about the thoughts of others will play a critical role in the formal operational stage of development when logic and abstract thought become critical.
  • Option E: All these things are evident during the concrete operational stage. While children are still very concrete and literal in their thinking at this point in development, they become much more adept at using logic.


Kim and her daughter Jane went grocery shopping to only buy essential things needed at home. As they went along the different sections of the store, Jane saw a limited-edition Barbie doll. She is tempted to get it but decides not to grab it for fear of being slapped. This behavior of Jane is considered to be in what stage of Kohlberg’s Moral Development?

  • A. Conventional Stage 3: Good Boy/Nice Girl Orientation
  • B. Preconventional Stage 1: Punishment/Obedience Orientation
  • C. Conventional Stage 2: Law and Order Orientation
  • D. Preconventional Stage 2: Instrumental Relativist Orientation

Correct Answer: B. Preconventional Stage 1: Punishment/Obedience Orientation

Jane is in the pre-conventional level stage 1 where judgment is motivated by fear of punishment. Children in this stage are responsive to rules that will affect their physical well-being. Stage 1 focuses on the child’s desire to obey rules and avoid being punished. For example, an action is perceived as morally wrong because the perpetrator is punished; the worse the punishment for the act is, the more “bad” the act is perceived to be.

  • Option A: This is the stage where proper behavior is driven by social approval. In stage 3, children want the approval of others and act in ways to avoid disapproval. Emphasis is placed on good behavior and people being “nice” to others.
  • Option C: This is the stage where obeying laws is one’s duty to society and a sign of respect for authority. In stage 4, the child blindly accepts rules and conventions because of their importance in maintaining a functioning society. Rules are seen as being the same for everyone, and obeying rules by doing what one is “supposed” to do is seen as valuable and important.
  • Option D: This is the stage where a person bases heavily on obtaining a reward or exchanging favors. Stage 2 expresses the “what’s in it for me?” position, in which right behavior is defined by whatever the individual believes to be in their best interest. Stage two reasoning shows a limited interest in the needs of others, only to the point where it might further the individual’s own interests.