Another set of questions for Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing to sharpen your critical thinking skills and prepare you for the actual NCLEX exam? Here are 50 more questions covering topics like therapeutic communication, schizophrenia, and sexual abuse and disorders.
EXAM TIP: In general, put clients with the same or similar diagnoses in the same room.
Once you make a decision, the universe conspires to make it happen.
~Ralph Waldo Emerson
Topics or concepts included in this exam are:
- Alcoholics Anonymous
- Alzheimer’s Disease
- Anorexia Nervosa
- Bipolar Disorder
- Conduct Disorder
- Electroconvulsive Therapy
- Lithium Carbonate
- Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI)
- Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
- Somatoform Disorder
- Sexual abuse and disorders
- Therapeutic Communication
Follow the guidelines below to make the most out of this exam:
- Read each question carefully and choose the best answer.
- You are given one minute per question. Spend your time wisely!
- Answers and rationales (if any) are given below. Be sure to read them.
- If you need more clarifications, please direct them to the comments section.
In Exam Mode: All questions are shown but the results, answers, and rationales (if any) will only be given after you’ve finished the quiz. You are given 1 minute per question.
Psychiatric Nursing Practice Quiz #3 (50 Questions)
Practice Mode: This is an interactive version of the Text Mode. All questions are given in a single page and correct answers, rationales or explanations (if any) are immediately shown after you have selected an answer. No time limit for this exam.
Psychiatric Nursing Practice Quiz #3 (50 Questions)
In Text Mode: All questions and answers are given for reading and answering at your own pace. You can also copy this exam and make a print out.
1. Which nursing intervention is best for facilitating communication with a psychiatric client who speaks a foreign language?
A. Rely on nonverbal communication.
B. Select symbolic pictures as aids.
C. Speak in universal phrases.
D. Use the services of an interpreter.
2. The nurse explains to a mental health care technician that a client’s obsessive-compulsive behaviors are related to an unconscious conflict between id impulses and the superego (or conscience). On which of the following theories does the nurse base this statement?
A. Behavioral theory
B. Cognitive theory
C. Interpersonal theory
D. Psychoanalytic theory
3. The nurse observes a client pacing in the hall. Which statement by the nurse may help the client recognize his anxiety?
A. “I guess you’re worried about something, aren’t you?
b. “Can I get you some medication to help calm you?”
c. “Have you been pacing for a long time?”
d. “I notice that you’re pacing. How are you feeling?”
4. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is hospitalized on an inpatient unit. Which nursing response is most therapeutic?
A. Accepting the client’s obsessive-compulsive behaviors
B. Challenging the client’s obsessive-compulsive behaviors
C. Preventing the client’s obsessive-compulsive behaviors
D. Rejecting the client’s obsessive-compulsive behaviors
5. A 45-year-old woman with a history of depression tells a nurse in her doctor’s office that she has difficulty with sexual arousal and is fearful that her husband will have an affair. Which of the following factors would the nurse identify as least significant in contributing to the client’s sexual difficulty?
A. Education and work history
B. Medication used
C. Physical health status
D. Quality of spousal relationship
6. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for a client with anorexia nervosa during initial hospitalization on a behavioral therapy unit?
A. Emphasize the importance of good nutrition to establish normal weight.
B. Ignore the client’s mealtime behavior and focus instead on issues of dependence and independence.
C. Help establish a plan using privileges and restrictions based on compliance with refeeding.
D. Teach the client information about the long-term physical consequence of anorexia.
7. A nurse is evaluating therapy with the family of a client with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following would indicate that the therapy was successful?
A. The parents reinforce increased decision making by the client.
B. The parents clearly verbalize their expectations for the client.
C. The client verbalizes that family meals are now enjoyable.
D. The client tells her parents about feelings of low self-esteem.
8. The nurse is working with a client with a somatoform disorder. Which client outcome goal would the nurse most likely establish in this situation?
A. The client will recognize signs and symptoms of physical illness.
B. The client will cope with physical illness.
C. The client will take prescribed medications.
D. The client will express anxiety verbally rather than through physical symptoms.
9. Which method would a nurse use to determine a client’s potential risk for suicide?
A. Wait for the client to bring up the subject of suicide.
B. Observe the client’s behavior for cues of suicide ideation.
C. Question the client directly about suicidal thoughts.
D. Question the client about future plans.
10. A client with a bipolar disorder exhibits manic behavior. The nursing diagnosis is Disturbed thought processes related to difficulty concentrating, secondary to flight of ideas. Which of the following outcome criteria would indicate improvement in the client?
A. The client verbalizes feelings directly during treatment.
B. The client verbalizes positive “self” statement.
C. The client speaks in coherent sentences.
D. The client reports feelings calmer.
11. A client tells a nurse. “Everyone would be better off if I wasn’t alive.” Which nursing diagnosis would be made based on this statement?
A. Disturbed thought processes
B. Ineffective coping
C. Risk for self-directed violence
D. Impaired social interaction
12. Which information is the most essential in the initial teaching session for the family of a young adult recently diagnosed with schizophrenia?
A. Symptoms of this disease imbalance in the brain.
B. Genetic history is an important factor related to the development of schizophrenia.
C. Schizophrenia is a serious disease affecting every aspect of a person’s functioning.
D. The distressing symptoms of this disorder can respond to treatment with medications.
13. A nurse is working with a client who has schizophrenia, paranoid type. Which of the following outcomes related to the client’s delusional perceptions would the nurse establish?
A. The client will demonstrate realistic interpretation of daily events in the unit.
B. The client will perform daily hygiene and grooming without assistance.
C. The client will take prescribed medications without difficulty.
D. The client will participate in unit activities.
14. A client with bipolar disorder, manic type, exhibits extreme excitement, delusional thinking, and command hallucinations. Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis?
B. Impaired social interaction
C. Disturbed sensory-perceptual alteration (auditory)
D. Risk for other-directed violence
15. A client who abuses alcohol and cocaine tells a nurse that he only uses substances because of his stressful marriage and difficult job. Which defense mechanisms is this client using?
16. An 11-year-old child diagnosed with conduct disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit for treatment. Which of the following behaviors would the nurse assess?
A. Restlessness, short attention span, hyperactivity
B. Physical aggressiveness, low-stress tolerance disregard for the rights of others
C. Deterioration in social functioning, excessive anxiety, and worry, bizarre behavior
D. Sadness, poor appetite and sleeplessness, loss of interest in activities
17. The nurse understands that if a client continues to be dependent on heroin throughout her pregnancy, her baby will be at high risk for:
A. Mental retardation.
B. Heroin dependence.
C. Addiction in adulthood.
D. Psychological disturbances.
18. The emergency department nurse is assigned to provide care for a victim of a sexual assault. When following legal and agency guidelines, which intervention is most important?
A. Determine the assailant’s identity.
B. Preserve the client’s privacy.
C. Identify the extent of an injury.
D. Ensure an unbroken chain of evidence.
19. Which factor is least important in the decision regarding whether a victim of family violence can safely remain in the home?
A. The availability of appropriate community shelters
B. The non-abusing caretaker’s ability to intervene on the client’s behalf
C. The client’s possible response to relocation
D. The family’s socioeconomic status
20. The nurse would expect a client with early Alzheimer’s disease to have problems with:
A. Balancing a checkbook.
B. Self-care measures.
C. Relating to family members.
D. Remembering his own name
21. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for a client with Alzheimer’s disease who has frequent episodes emotional lability?
A. Attempt humor to alter the client mood.
B. Explore reasons for the client’s altered mood.
C. Reduce environmental stimuli to redirect the client’s attention.
D. Use logic to point out reality aspects.
22. Which neurotransmitter has been implicated in the development of Alzheimer’s disease?
23. Which factors are the most essential for the nurse to assess when providing crisis intervention foer a client?
A. The client’s communication and coping skills
B. The client’s anxiety level and ability to express feelings
C. The client’s perception of the triggering event and availability of situational supports
D. The client’s use of reality testing and level of depression
24. The nurse considers a client’s response to crisis intervention successful if the client:
A. Changes coping skills and behavioral patterns.
B. Develops insight into reasons why the crisis occurred.
C. Learns to relate better to others.
D. Returns to his previous level of functioning.
25. Two nurses are co-leading group therapy for seven clients in the psychiatric unit. The leaders observe that the group members are anxious and look to the leaders for answers. Which phase of development is this group in?
A. Conflict resolution phase
B. Initiation phase
C. Working phase
D. Termination phase
26. Group members have worked very hard, and the nurse reminds them that termination is approaching. Termination is considered successful if group members:
A. Decide to continue.
B. Elevate group progress
C. Focus on positive experience
D. Stop attending prior to termination.
27. The nurse is teaching a group of clients about the mood-stabilizing medications lithium carbonate. Which medications should she instruct the clients to avoid because of the increased risk of lithium toxicity?
28. When providing family therapy, the nurse analyzes the functioning of healthy family systems. Which situations would not increase stress on a healthy family system?
A. An adolescent’s going away to college
B. The birth of a child
C. The death of a grandparent
D. Parental disagreement
29. A client taking the monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) antidepressant isocarboxazid (Marplan) is instructed by the nurse to avoid which foods and beverages?
A. Aged cheese and red wine
B. Milk and green, leafy vegetables
C. Carbonated beverages and tomato products
D. Lean red meats and fruit juices
30. Prior to administering chlorpromazine (Thorazine) to an agitated client, the nurse should:
31. The nurse understands that electroconvulsive therapy is primarily used in psychiatric care for the treatment of:
A. Anxiety disorders.
32. A client taking the MAOI phenelzine (Nardil) tells the nurse that he routinely takes all of the medications listed below. Which medication would cause the nurse to express concern and therefore initiate further teaching?
A. Add fiber to his diet.
B. Exercise on a regular basis.
C. Report incomplete bladder emptying
D. Take the prescribed dose at bedtime.
34. The nurse correctly teaches a client taking the Benzodiazepine Oxazepam (Serax) to avoid excessive intake of:
35. The nurse provides a referral to Alcoholics Anonymous to a client who describes a 20-year history of alcohol abuse. The primary function of this group is to:
A. Encourage the use of a 12-step program.
B. Help members maintain sobriety.
C. Provide fellowship among members.
D. Teach positive coping mechanisms.
36. Which client outcome is most appropriately achieved in a community approach setting in psychiatric nursing?
A. The client performs activities of daily living and learns about crafts.
B. The client is able to prevent aggressive behavior and monitors his use of medications.
C. The client demonstrates self-reliance and social adaptation.
D. The client experience experiences anxiety relief and learns about his symptoms.
37. A client with panic disorder experiences an acute attack while the nurse is completing an admission assessment. List the following interventions according to their level of priority.
A. Remain with the client.
B. Encourage physical activity.
C. Encourage low, deep breathing.
D. Reduce external stimuli.
E. Teach coping measures.
38. The doctor has prescribed haloperidol (Haldol) 2.5 mg. I.M. for an agitated client. The medication is labeled haloperidol 10 mg/2 ml. The nurse prepares the correct dose by drawing up how many milliliters in the syringe?
39. The nurse enters the room of a client with a cognitive impairment disorder and asks what day of the week it is: what the date, month, and year are; and where the client is. The nurse is attempting to assess:
40. Which of the following will the nurse use when communicating with a client who has a cognitive impairment?
A. Complete explanations with multiple details
B. Picture or gestures instead of words
C. Stimulating words and phrases to capture the client’s attention
D. Short words and simple sentences
41. A 75-year-old client has dementia of the Alzheimer’s type and confabulates. The nurse understands that this client:
A. Denies confusion by being jovial.
B. Pretends to be someone else.
C. Rationalizes various behaviors.
D. Fills in memory gaps with fantasy.
42. An elderly client with Alzheimer’s disease becomes agitated and combative when a nurse approaches to help with morning care. The most appropriate nursing intervention in this situation would be to:
A. Tell the client family that it is time to get dressed.
B. Obtain assistance to restrain the client for safety.
C. Remain calm and talk quietly to the client.
D. Call the doctor and request an order for sedation.
43. In clients with a cognitive impairment disorder, the phenomenon of increased confusion in the early evening hours is called:
44. Which of the following outcome criteria is appropriate for the client with dementia?
A. The client will return to an adequate level of self-functioning.
B. The client will learn new coping mechanisms to handle anxiety.
C. The client will seek out resources in the community for support.
D. The client will follow an establishing schedule for activities of daily living.
45. The school guidance counselor refers a family with an 8-year-old child to the mental health clinic because of the child’s frequent fighting in school and truancy. Which of the following data would be a priority to the nurse doing the initial family assessment?
A. The child’s performance in school
B. Family education and work history
C. The family’s perception of the current problem
D. The teacher’s attempt to solve the problem
46. The parents of a young man with schizophrenia express feelings of responsibility and guilt for their son’s problems. How can the nurse best educate the family?
A. Acknowledge the parent’s responsibility.
B. Explain the biological nature of schizophrenia.
C. Refer the family to a support group
D. Teach the parents various ways they must change.
47. The nurse collecting family assessment data asks. “Who is in your family and where do they live?” which of the following is the nurse attempting o identify?
48. According to the family systems theory, which of the following best describes the process of differentiation?
A. Cooperative action among members of the family
B. Development of autonomy within the family
C. Incongruent messages wherein the recipient is a victim
D. Maintenance of system continuity or equilibrium
49. The nurse is interacting with a family consisting of a mother, a father, and a hospitalized adolescent who has a diagnosis of alcohol abuse. The nurse analyzes the situation and agrees with the adolescent’s view about family rules. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. The nurse should align with the adolescent, who is the family scapegoat.
B. The nurse should encourage the parents to adopt more realistic rules.
C. The nurse should encourage the adolescent to comply with parental rules.
D. The nurse should remain objective and encourage mutual negotiation of issues.
50. A 16-year-old girl has returned home following hospitalization for treatment of anorexia nervosa. The parents tell the family nurse performing a home visit that their child has always done everything to please them and they cannot understand her current stubbornness about eating. The nurse analyzes the family situation and determines it is characteristic of which relationship style?
Answers and Rationale
1. Answer: D. Use the services of an interpreter.
An interpreter will enable the nurse to better assess the client’s problems and concerns.
- Option A: Nonverbal communication is important; however for the nurse to fully determine the client’s problems and concerns, the assistance of an interpreter is essential.
- Options B and C: The use of symbolic pictures and universal phrases may assist the nurse in understanding the basic needs of the client; however these are insufficient to assess the client with a psychiatric problem.
2. Answer: D. Psychoanalytic theory
Psychoanalytic is based on Freud’s beliefs regarding the importance of unconscious motivation for behavior and the role of the id and superego in opposition to each other.
- Options A and B: Behavioral cognitive and interpersonal theories do not emphasize unconscious conflicts as the basis for symptomatic behavior.
3. Answer: D. “I notice that you’re pacing. How are you feeling?”
By acknowledging the observed behavior and asking the client to express his feelings the nurse can best assist the client to become aware of his anxiety.
- In option A, the nurse is offering an interpretation that may or may not be accurate; the nurse is also asking a question that may be answered by a “yes” or “no” response, which is not therapeutic.
- In option B, the nurse is intervening before accurately assessing the problem.
- Option C, which also encourages a “yes” or “no” response, avoids focusing on the client’s anxiety, which is the reason for his pacing.
4. Answer: A. Accepting the client’s obsessive-compulsive behaviors
A client with obsessive-compulsive behavior uses this behavior to decrease anxiety. Accepting this behavior as the client’s attempt to feel secure is therapeutic. When a specific treatment plan is developed, other nursing responses may also be acceptable.
- Options B, C, and D: The remaining answer choices will increase the client’s anxiety and therefore are inappropriate.
5. Answer: A. Education and work history
Education and work history would have the least significance in relation to the client’s sexual problem.
- Options B, C, and D: Age, health status, physical attributes and relationship issues have great influence on sexual expression.
6. Answer: C. Help establish a plan using privileges and restrictions based on compliance with refeeding.
Inpatient treatment of a client with anorexia usually focuses initially on establishing a plan for refeeding to combat the effects of self-induced starvation. Refeeding is accomplished through behavioral therapy, which uses a system of rewards and reinforcements to assist in establishing weight restoration.
- Options A and D: Emphasizing nutrition and teaching the client about the long-term physical consequences of anorexia maybe appropriate at a later time in the treatment program.
- Option B: The nurse needs to assess the client’s mealtime behavior continually to evaluate treatment effectiveness.
7. Answer: A. The parents reinforce increased decision making by the client.
One of the core issues concerning the family of a client with anorexia is control. The family’s acceptance of the client’s ability to make independent decisions is key to successful family intervention.
- Options B, C, and D: Although the remaining options may occur during the process of therapy they would not necessarily indicate a successful outcome; the central family issues of dependence and independence are not addressed in these responses.
8. Answer: D. The client will express anxiety verbally rather than through physical symptoms.
The client with a somatoform disorder displaces anxiety into physical symptoms. The ability to express anxiety verbally indicates a positive change toward improved health.
- Options A, B, and C: The remaining responses do not indicate any positive change toward increased coping with anxiety.
9. Answer: C. Question the client directly about suicidal thoughts.
Directly questioning a client about suicide is important to determine suicide risk.
- Option A: The client may not bring up this subject for several reasons, including guilt regarding suicide, wishing not to be discovered, and his lack of trust in staff.
- Option B: Behavioral cues are important, but direct questioning is essential to determine suicide risk.
- Option D: Indirect questions convey to the client that the nurse is not comfortable with the subject of suicide and, therefore, the client may be reluctant to discuss the topic.
10. Answer: C. The client speaks in coherent sentences
A client exhibiting flight of ideas typically has a continuous speech flow and jumps from one topic to another. Speaking in coherent sentences is an indicator that the client’s concentration has improved and his thoughts are no longer racing.
- Options A, B, and D: The remaining options do not relate directly to the stated nursing diagnosis.
11. Answer: C. Risk for self-directed violence
The nurse should take any nurse statements indicating suicidal thoughts seriously and further assess for other risk factors.
- Options A, B, and D: The remaining diagnoses fail to address the seriousness of the client’s statement.
12. Answer: D. The distressing symptoms of this disorder can respond to treatment with medications.
This statement provides accurate information and an element of hope for the family of a schizophrenic client.
- Options A, B, and C: Although the remaining statements are true, they do not provide the empathic response the family needs after just learning about the diagnosis. These facts can become part of the ongoing teaching.
13. Answer: A. The client will demonstrate realistic interpretation of daily events in the unit.
A client with schizophrenia, paranoid type, has distorted perceptions and views people, institutions, and aspects of the environment as plotting against him. The desired outcome for someone with delusional perceptions would be to have a realistic interpretation of daily events.
- Option B: The client with a distorted perception of the environment would not necessarily have impairments affecting hygiene and grooming skills.
- Options C and D: Although taking medications and participating in unit activities may be appropriate outcomes for nursing intervention; these responses are not related to client perceptions.
14. Answer: D. Risk for other-directed violence
A client with these symptoms would have poor impulse control and would therefore be prone to acting-out behavior that may be harmful to either himself or others. All of the remaining nursing diagnoses may apply to the client with mania; however, the priority diagnosis would be risk for violence.
- Options A, B, and C: All of the remaining nursing diagnoses may apply to the client with mania; however, the priority diagnosis would be risk for violence.
15. Answer: C. Rationalization
Rationalization is the defense mechanism that involves offering excuses for maladaptive behavior. The client is defending his substance abuse by providing reasons related to life stressors. This is a common defense mechanism used by clients with substance abuse problems.
- Options A, B, and D: None of the remaining defense mechanisms involves making excuses for behaviors.
16. Answer: B. Physical aggressiveness, low-stress tolerance disregard for the rights of others
Physical aggressiveness, low-stress tolerance, and a disregard for the rights of others are common behaviors in clients with conduct disorders.
- Option A: Restlessness, short attention span, and hyperactivity are typical behaviors in a client with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.
- Option C: Deterioration in social functioning, excessive anxiety and worry and bizarre behaviors are typical in schizophrenic disorders.
- Option D: Sadness, poor appetite, sleeplessness, and loss of interest in activities are behaviors commonly seen in depressive disorders.
17. Answer: B. Heroin dependence.
Babies born to heroin-dependent women are also heroin-dependent and need to go through withdrawal. There is no evidence to support any of the remaining answer choices.
18. Answer: D. Ensure an unbroken chain of evidence.
Establishing an unbroken chain of evidence is essential in order to ensure that the prosecution of the perpetrator can occur.
- Options A and D: The nurse will also need to preserve the client’s privacy and identify the extent of an injury. However, it is essential that the nurse follows legal and agency guidelines for preserving evidence.
- Option C: Identifying the assailant is the job of law enforcement, not the nurse.
19. Answer: D. The family’s socioeconomic status
Socioeconomic status is not a reliable predictor of abuse in the home so that it would be the least important consideration in deciding issues of safety for the victim of family violence.
- Options A and B: The availability of appropriate community shelters and the ability of the non-abusing caretaker to intervene on the client’s behalf are important factors when making safety decisions.
- Option C: The client’s response to possible relocation (if the client is a competent adult) would be the most important factor to consider; feelings of empowerment and being treated as a competent person can help a client feel less like a victim.
20. Answer: A. Balancing a checkbook.
In the early stage of Alzheimer’s disease, complex tasks (such as balancing a checkbook) would be the first cognitive deficit to occur.
- Options B, C, and D: The loss of self-care ability, problems with relating to family members, and difficulty remembering one’s own name are all areas of cognitive decline that occur later in the disease process.
21. Answer: C. Reduce environmental stimuli to redirect the client’s attention.
The client with Alzheimer’s disease can have frequent episode of labile mood, which can best be handled by decreasing a stimulating environment and redirecting the client’s attention.
- Option A: The client with Alzheimer’s disease loses the cognitive ability to respond to either humor or logic.
- Option B: An over stimulating environment may cause the labile mood, which will be difficult for the client to understand.
- Option D: The client lacks any insight into his or her own behavior and therefore will be unaware of any causative factors.
22. Answer: A. Acetylcholine
A relative deficiency of acetylcholine is associated with this disorder. The drugs used in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease will act to increase available acetylcholine in the brain. The remaining neurotransmitters have not been implicated in Alzheimer’s disease.
23. Answer: C. The client’s perception of the triggering event and availability of situational supports
The most important factors to determine in this situations are the client’s perception of the crisis event and the availability of support (including family and friends) to provide basic needs.
- Options A, B, and D: Although the nurse should assess the other factors, they are not as essential as determining why the client considers this a crisis and whether he can meet his present needs.
24. Answer: D. Returns to his previous level of functioning.
Crisis intervention is based on the idea that a crisis is a disturbance in homeostasis (steady state). The goal is to help the client return to a previous level of equilibrium in functioning.
- Options A, B, and C: The remaining answer choices are not considered the primary outcome of crisis intervention, although they may occur as a side benefit.
25. Answer: B. Initiation phase
Increased anxiety and uncertainty characterize the initiation phase in group therapy. Group members are more self-reliant during the working and termination phases.
26. Answer: A. Decide to continue.
As the group progresses into the working phase, group members assume more responsibility for the group. The leader becomes more of a facilitator. Comments about behavior in a group are indicators that the group is active and involved.
- Options B, C, and D: The remaining answer choices would indicate the group progress has not advanced to the working phase.
27. Answer: C. Diuretics
The use of diuretics would cause sodium and water excretion, which would increase the risk of lithium toxicity. Clients taking lithium carbonate should be taught to increase their fluid intake and to maintain normal intake of sodium.
- Options A, B, and D: Concurrent use of any of the remaining medications will not increase the risk of lithium toxicity.
28. Answer: D. Parental disagreement
In a functional family, parents typically do not agree on all issues and problems. Open discussion of thoughts and feeling is healthy, and parental disagreement should not cause system stress.
- Options A, B, and C: The remaining answer choices are life transitions that are expected to increase family stress.
29. Answer: A. Aged cheese and red wine
Aged cheese and red wines contain the substance tyramine which, when taken with an MAOI, can precipitate a hypertensive crisis.
Options B, C, and D: The other foods and beverages do not contain significant amounts of tyramine and, therefore, are not restricted.
30. Answer: C. Take the client’s blood pressure
Because chlorpromazine (Thorazine) can cause a significant hypotensive effect (and possible client injury), the nurse must assess the client’s blood pressure (lying, sitting, and standing) before administering this drug.
- Option A: If the client had taken the drug previously, the nurse would also need to assess the skin color and sclera for signs of jaundice, a possible drug side affect; however, based on the information given here, there is no evidence that the client has received chlorpromazine before.
- Option D: Although the drug can cause urine retention, asking the client to avoid will not alter this anticholinergic effect.
31. Answer: B. Depression.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) can provide relief for patients with severe depression who have not been able to feel better with other treatments. In some severe cases where rapid response is necessary or medications cannot be used safely, ECT can even be a first-line intervention. ECT consists of a series of sessions, typically three times a week, for two to four weeks.
32. Answer: B. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Over-the-counter medications used for allergies and cold symptoms are contraindicated because they will increase the sympathomimetic effects of MAOIs, possibly causing a hypertensive crisis.
- Options A, C, and D: None of the remaining medications will increase the sympathomimetic response and, therefore, are not contraindicated.
33. Answer: C. Report incomplete bladder emptying
Urinary retention is a common anticholinergic side effect of psychotic medications, and the client with benign prostatic hypertrophy would have increased risk for this problem.
- Options A and B: Adding fiber to one’s diet and exercising regularly are measures to counteract another anticholinergic effect, constipation.
- Option D: Depending on the specific medication and how it is prescribed, taking the medication at night may or may not be important. However, it would have nothing to do with urinary retention in this client.
34. Answer: B. Coffee
Coffee contains caffeine, which has a stimulating effect on the central nervous system that will counteract the effect of the antianxiety medication oxazepam. None of the remaining foods is contraindicated.
35. Answer: B. Help members maintain sobriety.
The primary purpose of Alcoholics Anonymous is to help members achieve and maintain sobriety.
- Options A, C, and D: Although each of the remaining answer choices may be an outcome of attendance at Alcoholics Anonymous, the primary purpose is directed toward sobriety of members.
36. Answer: C. The client demonstrates self-reliance and social adaptation.
A therapeutic community is designed to help individuals assume responsibility for themselves, to learn how to respect and communicate with others, and to interact in a positive manner.
- Options A, B, and D: The remaining answer choices may be outcomes of psychiatric treatment, but the use of a therapeutic community approach is concerned with the promotion of self-reliance and cooperative adaptation to being with others.
37. Answer: A, D, C, B, then E.
The nurse should remain with the client to provide support and promote safety. Reducing external stimuli, including dimming lights and avoiding crowded areas, will help decrease anxiety. Encouraging the client to use slow, deep breathing will help promote the body’s relaxation response, thereby interrupting stimulation from the autonomic nervous system. Encouraging physical activity will help him to release energy resulting from the heightened anxiety state; this should be done only after the client has brought his breathing under control. Teaching coping measures will help the client learn to handle anxiety; however, this can only be accomplished when the client’s panic has dissipated and he is better able to focus.
38. Answer: C. 0.5
Set up the problem as follows: 2.5mg/10mg = Xml/2ml X=0.5ml
39. Answer: C. Orientation
The initial, most basic assessment of a client with cognitive impairment involves determining his level of orientation (awareness of time, place, and person).
- Options A and D: The nurse may also assess for confabulation and perseveration in a client with cognitive impairment, but the questions in this situation would not elicit the symptom response.
- Option B: Delirium is a type of cognitive impairment; however, other symptoms are necessary to establish this diagnosis.
40. Answer: D. Short words and simple sentences
Short words and simple sentence minimize client confusion and enhance communication.
- Options A and C: Complete explanations with multiple details and stimulating words and phrases would increase confusion in a client with short attention span and difficulty with comprehension.
- Option B: Although pictures and gestures may be helpful, they would not substitute for verbal communication.
41. Answer: D. Fills in memory gaps with fantasy.
Confabulation is a communication device used by patients with dementia to compensate for memory gaps. The remaining answer choices are incorrect.
42. Answer: C. Remain calm and talk quietly to the client.
Maintaining a calm approach when intervening with an agitated client is extremely important.
- Option A: Telling the client firmly that it is time to get dressed may increase his agitation, especially if the nurse touches him.
- Option B: Restraints are a last resort to ensure client safety and are inappropriate in this situation.
- Option D: Sedation should be avoided, if possible, because it will interfere with CNS functioning and may contribute to the client’s confusion.
43. Answer: C. Sundowning
Sundowning is a common phenomenon that occurs after daylight hours in a client with a cognitive impairment disorder. The other options are incorrect responses, although all may be seen in this client.
44. Answer: D. The client will follow an establishing schedule for activities of daily living.
Following established activity schedules is a realistic expectation for clients with dementia.
- Options A, B, and C: All of the remaining outcome statements require a higher level of cognitive ability than can be realistically expected of clients with this disorder.
45. Answer: C. The family’s perception of the current problem
The family’s perception of the problem is essential because change in any one part of a family system affects all other parts and the system as a whole. Each member of the family has been affected by the current problems related to the school system and the nurse would be interested in the data. Options A and D: The child’s performance in school and the teacher’s attempts to solve the problem are relevant and may be assessed; however, priority would be given to the family’s perception of the problem. Option B: The family education and work history may be relevant, but are not a priority.
46. Answer: B. Explain the biological nature of schizophrenia.
The parents are feeling responsible and this inappropriate self-blame can be limited by supplying them with the facts about the biologic basis of schizophrenia.
- Option A: Acknowledging the patient’s responsibility is neither accurate nor helpful to the parents and would only reinforce their feelings of guilt.
- Option C: Support groups are useful; however, the nurse needs to handle the parents’ self-blame directly instead of making a referral for this problem.
- Option D: Teaching the parents various ways to change would reinforce the parental assumption of blame; although parents can learn about schizophrenia and what is helpful and not helpful, the approach suggested in this option implies the parents’ behavior is at fault.
47. Answer: A. Boundaries
Family boundaries are parameters that define who is inside and outside the system. The best method of obtaining this information is asking the family directly who they consider to be members.
- Options B, C, and D: The question asked by the nurse would not elicit information about the family’s ethnicity or culture, nor does it address the nature of the family relationship.
48. Answer: B. Development of autonomy within the family
Differentiation is the process of becoming an individual developing autonomy while staying in contact with the family system.
- Option A: Cooperative action among family members does not refer to differentiation, although individuals who have a high level of differentiation would be able to accomplish cooperative action.
- Option C: Incongruent messages in which the recipient is a victim describe double-bind communication.
- Option D: Maintenance of system continuity or equilibrium is homeostasis.
49. Answer: D. The nurse should remain objective and encourage mutual negotiation of issues.
The nurse who wishes to be helpful to the entire family must remain neutral. Taking sides in a conflict situation in a family will not encourage negotiation, which is important for problem resolution.
- Option A: If the nurse aligned with the adolescent, then the nurse would be blaming the parents for the child’s current problem; this would not help the family’s situation. Learning to negotiate conflict is a function of a healthy family.
- Options B and C: Encouraging the parents to adopt more realistic rules or the adolescent to comply with parental rules does not give the family an opportunity to try to resolve problems on their own.
50. Answer: C. Enmeshment
Enmeshment is a fusion or over involvement among family members whereby the expectation exists that all members think and act alike. The child who always acts to please her parents is an example of how enmeshment affects development in many cases, a child who develops anorexia nervosa exerts control only in the area of eating behavior.
- Options A, B, and D: The remaining options are not appropriate to the situation described.
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