Personality Disorders NCLEX Practice Quiz 2 (50 Items)

Get an in-depth questioning about Depression, Personality Disorders and Psychiatric Drugs in this 50-item NCLEX Exam. Take this quiz and learn more about personalities disorders and existing approaches to management and treatment.

Yet I also recognize this: Even if everyone in the world were to accept me and my illness and validate my pain, unless I can abide myself and be compassionate toward my own distress, I will probably always feel alone and neglected by others.
― Kiera Van Gelder

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Topics or concepts included in this exam are:

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  • Read each question carefully and choose the best answer.
  • You are given one minute per question. Spend your time wisely!
  • Answers and rationales (if any) are given below. Be sure to read them.
  • If you need more clarifications, please direct them to the comments section.

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Personality Disorders Practice Quiz #2 (50 Questions)

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Personality Disorders Practice Quiz #2 (50 Questions)

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1. Which is the best indicator of success in the long term management of the client?

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A. His symptoms are replaced by indifference to his feelings
B. He participates in diversionary activities.
C. He learns to verbalize his feelings and concerns
D. He states that his behavior is irrational.

2. Situation: A young woman is brought to the emergency room appearing depressed. The nurse learned that her child died a year ago due to an accident. The initial nursing diagnosis is dysfunctional grieving. The statement of the woman that supports this diagnosis is:

A. “I feel envious of mothers who have toddlers”
B. “I haven’t been able to open the door and go into my baby’s room “
C. “I watch other toddlers and think about their play activities and I cry.”
D. “I often find myself thinking of how I could have prevented the death.

3. The client said “I can’t even take care of my baby. I’m good for nothing.” Which is the appropriate nursing diagnosis?

A. Ineffective individual coping related to loss.
B. Impaired verbal communication related to inadequate social skills.
C. Low esteem related to failure in role performance
D. Impaired social interaction related to repressed anger.

4. The following medications will likely be prescribed for the client EXCEPT:

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A. Prozac
B. Tofranil
C. Parnate
D. Zyprexa

5. Which is the highest priority in the post-ECT care?

A. Observe for confusion
B. Monitor respiratory status
C. Reorient to time, place and person
D. Document the client’s response to the treatment

6. Situation: A 27-year-old writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife. He is demanding, arrogant, talked fast and hyperactive. Initially, the nurse should plan this for a manic client:

A. Set realistic limits to the client’s behavior
B. Repeat verbal instructions as often as needed
C. Allow the client to get out feelings to relieve tension
D. Assign a staff to be with the client at all times to help maintain control

7. An activity appropriate for the client is:

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A. Table tennis
B. Painting
C. Chess
D. Cleaning

8. The client is arrogant and manipulative. In ensuring a therapeutic milieu, the nurse does one of the following:

A. Agree on a consistent approach among the staff assigned to the client.
B. Suggest that the client take a leading role in the social activities
C. Provide the client with extra time for one on one sessions
D. Allow the client to negotiate the plan of care

9. The nurse exemplifies an awareness of the rights of a client whose anger is escalating by:

A. Taking a directive role in verbalizing feelings
B. Using an authoritarian, confrontational approach
C. Putting the client in a seclusion room
D. Applying mechanical restraints

10. A client on Lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first:

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A. Recognize this as a drug interaction
B. Give the client Cogentin
C. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of lithium therapy
D. Hold the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level

11. Situation: A widow age 28, whose husband died one (1) year ago due to AIDS, has just been told that she has AIDS. Panky says to the nurse, “Why me? How could God do this to me?” This reaction is one of:

A. Depression
B. Denial
C. anger
D. bargaining

12. The nurse’s therapeutic response is:

A. “I will refer you to a clergy who can help you understand what is happening to you.”
B. “ It isn’t fair that an innocent like you will suffer from AIDS.”
C. “That is a negative attitude.”
D. ”It must really be frustrating for you. How can I best help you?”

13. One morning the nurse sees the client in a depressed mood. The nurse asks her “What are you thinking about?” This communication technique is:

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A. Focusing
B. Validating
C. Reflecting
D. Giving broad opening

14. The client says to the nurse “Pray for me” and entrusts her wedding ring to the nurse. The nurse knows that this may signal which of the following:

A. Anxiety
B. Suicidal ideation
C. Major depression
D. Hopelessness

15. Which of the following interventions should be prioritized in the care of the suicidal client?

A. Remove all potentially harmful items from the client’s room.
B. Allow the client to express feelings of hopelessness.
C. Note the client’s capabilities to increase self-esteem.
D. Set a “no suicide” contract with the client.

16. Situation: A 14-year-old male was admitted to a medical ward due to bronchial asthma after learning that his mother was leaving soon for U.K. to work as a nurse. The client has which of the following developmental focus:

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A. Establishing a relationship with the opposite sex and career planning.
B. Parental and societal responsibilities.
C. Establishing one’s sense of competence in school.
D. Developing initial commitments and collaboration in work

17. The personality type of Ryan is:

A. Conforming
B. Dependent
C. Perfectionist
D. Masochistic

18. The nurse ensures a therapeutic environment for the client. Which of the following best describes a therapeutic milieu?

A. A therapy that rewards adaptive behavior
B. A cognitive approach to change behavior
C. A living, learning or working environment.
D. A permissive and congenial environment

19. Included as a priority of care for the client will be:

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A. Encourage verbalization of concerns instead of demonstrating them through the body
B. Divert attention toward activities
C. Place in semi-fowlers position and render O2 inhalation as ordered
D. Help her recognize that her physical condition has an emotional component

20. The client is concerned about his coming discharge, manifested by being unusually sad. Which is the most therapeutic approach by the nurse?

A. “You are much better than when you were admitted so there’s no reason to worry.”
B. “What would you like to do now that you’re about to go home?”
C. “You seem to have concerns about going home.”
D. “Aren’t you glad that you’re going home soon?”

21. Situation: The nurse may encounter clients with concerns on sexuality. The most basic factor in the intervention with clients in the area of sexuality is:

A. Knowledge about sexuality.
B. Experience in dealing with clients with sexual problems
C. Comfort with one’s sexuality
D. Ability to communicate effectively

22. Which of the following statements is true for gender identity disorder?

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A. It is a sexual pleasure derived from inanimate objects.
B. It is a pleasure derived from being humiliated and made to suffer
C. It is a pleasure of shocking the victim with exposure of the genitalia
D. It is the desire to live or involve in reactions of the opposite sex

23. The sexual response cycle in which the sexual interest continues to build:

A. Sexual Desire
B. Sexual arousal
C. Orgasm
D. Resolution

24. The inability to maintain the physiologic requirements in sexual intercourse is:

A. Sexual Desire Disorder
B. Sexual Arousal Disorder
C. Orgasm Disorder
D. Sexual Pain Disorder

25. The nurse asks a client to roll up his sleeves so she can take his blood pressure. The client replies “If you want I can go naked for you.” The most therapeutic response by the nurse is:

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A. “You’re attractive, but I’m not interested.”
B. “You wouldn’t be the first that I will see naked.”
C. “I will report you to the guard if you don’t control yourself.”
D. “I only need access to your arm. Putting up your sleeve is fine.”

26. Situation: Knowledge and skills in the care of violent clients is vital in the psychiatric unit. A nurse observes that a client with a potential for violence is agitated, pacing up and down the hallway and making aggressive remarks. Which of the following statements is most appropriate to make to this patient?

A. What is causing you to become agitated?
B. You need to stop that behavior now.
C. You will need to be restrained if you do not change your behavior.
D. You will need to be placed in seclusion.

27. The nurse closely observes the client who has been displaying aggressive behavior. The nurse observes that the client’s anger is escalating. Which approach is least helpful for the client at this time?

A. Acknowledge the client’s behavior
B. Maintain a safe distance from the client
C. Assist the client to an area that is quiet
D. Initiate confinement measures

28. The charge nurse of a psychiatric unit is planning the client assignment for the day. The most appropriate staff to be assigned to a client with a potential for violence is which of the following:

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A. A timid nurse
B. A mature, experienced nurse
C. an inexperienced nurse
D. a soft-spoken nurse

29. The nurse exemplifies an awareness of the rights of a client whose anger is escalating by:

A. Taking a directive role in verbalizing feelings
B. Using an authoritarian, confrontational approach
C. Putting the client in a seclusion room
D. Applying mechanical restraints

30. The client jumps up and throws a chair out of the window. He was restrained after his behavior can no longer be controlled by the staff. Which of these documentations indicates the safeguarding of the patient’s rights?

A. There was a doctor’s order for restraints/seclusion
B. The patient’s rights were explained to him.
C. The staff observed confidentiality
D. The staff carried out less restrictive measures but were unsuccessful.

31. Situation: Clients with personality disorders have difficulties in their social and occupational functions.
Clients with a personality disorder will most likely:

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A. Recover with therapeutic intervention
B. Respond to antianxiety medication
C. Manifest enduring patterns of inflexible behaviors
D. Seek treatment willingly from some personally distressing symptoms

32. A client tends to be insensitive to others, engages in abusive behaviors and does not have a sense of remorse. Which personality disorder is he likely to have?

A. Narcissistic
B. Paranoid
C. Histrionic
D. Antisocial

33. The client joins a support group and frequently preaches against abuse, is demonstrating the use of:

A. Denial
B. Reaction formation
C. Rationalization
D. Projection

34. A teenage girl is diagnosed to have borderline personality disorder. Which manifestations support the diagnosis?

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A. Lack of self-esteem, strong dependency needs, and impulsive behavior
B. Social withdrawal, inadequacy, sensitivity to rejection and criticism
C. Suspicious, hypervigilance and coldness
D. Preoccupation with perfectionism, orderliness, and need for control

35. The plan of care for clients with borderline personality should include:

A. Limit setting and flexibility in schedule
B. Giving medications to prevent acting out
C. Restricting her from other clients
D. Ensuring she adheres to certain restrictions

36. Situation: A 42-year-old male client, is admitted to the ward because of bizarre behaviors. He was given a diagnosis of schizophrenia paranoid type. The client should have achieved the developmental task of:

A. Trust vs. mistrust
B. Industry vs. Inferiority
C. Generativity vs. stagnation
D. Ego integrity vs. despair

37. Clients who are suspicious primarily use projection for which purpose:

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A. Deny reality
B. To deal with feelings and thoughts that are not acceptable
C. To show resentment towards others
D. Manipulate others

38. The client says “ the FBI is out to get me.” The nurse’s best response is:

A. “The FBI is not out to catch you.”
B. “I don’t believe that.”
C. “I don’t know anything about that. You are afraid of being harmed.”
D. “ What made you think of that.”

39. The client on Haldol has pill rolling tremors and muscle rigidity. He is likely manifesting:

A. Tardive dyskinesia
B. Pseudoparkinsonism
C. Akinesia
D. Dystonia

40. The client is very hostile toward one of the staff for no apparent reason. The client is manifesting:

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A. Splitting
B. Transference
C. Countertransference
D. Resistance

41. Situation: An 18-year-old female is sexually attacked while on her way home from work. She was brought to the hospital by her mother. Rape is an example of which type of crisis:

A. Situational
B. Adventitious
C. Developmental
D. Internal

42. During the initial care of rape victims, the following are to be considered EXCEPT:

A. Assure privacy.
B. Touch the client to show acceptance and empathy
C. Accompany the client to the examination room.
D. Maintain a non-judgmental approach.

43. The nurse acts as a patient advocate when she does one of the following:

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A. She encourages the client to express her feeling regarding her experience.
B. She assesses the client for injuries.
C. She postpones the physical assessment until the client is calm
D. Explains to the client that her reactions are normal

44. Crisis intervention carried out to the client has this primary goal:

A. Assist the client to express her feelings
B. Help her identify her resources
C. Support her adaptive coping skills
D. Help her return to her pre-rape level of function

45. Five months after the incident the client complains of difficulty to concentrate, poor appetite, inability to sleep and guilt. She is likely suffering from:

A. Adjustment disorder
B. Somatoform Disorder
C. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
D. Post traumatic disorder

46. Situation: A 29-year-old client newly diagnosed with breast cancer is pacing, with rapid speech headache and inability to focus on what the doctor was saying. The nurse assesses the level of anxiety as:

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A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Panic

47. Anxiety is caused by:

A. An objective threat
B. A subjectively perceived threat
C. Hostility turned to the self
D. Masked depression

48. It would be most helpful for the nurse to deal with a client with severe anxiety by:

A. Give specific instructions using speak in concise statements.
B. Ask the client to identify the cause of her anxiety.
C. Explain in detail the plan of care developed
D. Urge the client to focus on what the nurse is saying

49. Which of the following medications will likely be ordered for the client?”

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A. Prozac
B. Valium
C. Risperdal
D. Lithium

50. Which of the following is included in the health teachings among clients receiving Valium?:

A. Avoid foods rich in tyramine.
B. Take the medication after meals.
C. It is safe to stop it anytime after long term use.
D. Double up the dose if the client forgets her medication.

Answers and Rationale


1. Answer: C. He learns to verbalize his feelings and concerns

The client is encouraged to talk about his feelings and concerns instead of using body symptoms to manage his stressors.

  • Option A: The client is encouraged to acknowledge feelings rather than being indifferent to her feelings.
  • Option B: Participation in activities diverts the client’s attention away from his bodily concerns but this is not the best indicator of success.
  • Option D: Help the client recognize that his physical symptoms occur because of or are exacerbated by specific stressor, not as irrational.

2. Answer: B. “I haven’t been able to open the door and go into my baby’s room.”

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This indicates denial. This defense is adaptive as an initial reaction to loss but an extended, unsuccessful use of denial is dysfunctional.

  • Option A: This indicates acknowledgment of the loss. Expressing feelings openly is acceptable.
  • Option C: This indicates the stage of depression in the grieving process.
  • Option D: Remembering both positive and negative aspects of the deceased love one signals successful mourning.

3. Answer: C. Low esteem related to failure to role performance

This indicates the client’s negative self-evaluation. A sense of worthlessness may accompany depression.

  • Options A, B, and D are not relevant. The cues do not indicate inability to use coping resources, decreased ability to transmit/process symbols, nor insufficient quality of social exchange

4. Answer: D. Zyprexa

This is an antipsychotic.

  • Option A: Prozac is a SSRI antidepressant.
  • Option B: Tofranil antidepressant belongs to the Tricyclic group.
  • Option C: Parnate is a MAOI antidepressant.

5. Answer: B. Monitor respiratory status

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A side effect of ECT which is life threatening is a respiratory arrest.

  • Options A and C. Confusion and disorientation are side effects of ECT but these are not the highest priority.

6. Answer: A. set realistic limits to the client’s behavior

The manic client is hyperactive and may engage in injurious activities. A quiet environment and consistent and firm limits should be set to ensure safety.

  • Option B: Clear, concise directions are given because of the distractibility of the client but this is not the priority.
  • Option C: The manic client tend to externalize hostile feelings, however only non-destructive methods of expression should be allowed
  • Option D: Nurses set limit as needed. Assigning a staff to be with the client at all times is not realistic.

7. Answer: D. Cleaning

The client’s excess energy can be rechanneled through physical activities that are not competitive like cleaning. This is also a way to dissipate tension.

  • Option A: Tennis is a competitive activity which can stimulate the client.

8. Answer: A. Agree on a consistent approach among the staff assigned to the client.

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A consistent firm approach is appropriate. This is a therapeutic way of to handle attempts of exploiting the weakness in others or create conflicts among the staff. Bargaining should not be allowed.

  • Option B: This is not therapeutic because the client tends to control and dominate others.
  • Option C: Limits are set for interaction time.
  • Option D: Allowing the client to negotiate, may reinforce a manipulative behavior.

9. Answer: A. Taking a directive role in verbalizing feelings

The client has the right to be free from unnecessary restraints. Verbalization of feelings or “talking down” in a non-threatening environment is helpful to relieve the client’s anger.

  • Option B: This is a threatening approach.
  • Options C and D: Seclusion and application restraints are done only when less restrictive measures have failed to contain the client’s anger.

10. Answer: D. Hold the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level

Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of Lithium toxicity. The next dose of lithium should be withheld, and a test is done to validate the observation.

  • Option A: The manifestations are not due to drug interaction.
  • Option B: Cogentin is used to manage the extrapyramidal symptom side effects of antipsychotics.
  • Option C: The common side effects of Lithium are fine hand tremors, nausea, polyuria and polydipsia.

11. Answer: C. Anger

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Anger is experienced as reality sets in. This may either be directed to God, the deceased or displaced on others.

  • Option A: Depression is a painful stage where the individual mourns for what was lost.
  • Option B: Denial is the first stage of the grieving process evidenced by the statement “No, it can’t be true.” The individual does not acknowledge that the loss has occurred to protect self from the psychological pain of the loss.
  • Option D: In bargaining the individual holds out hope for additional alternatives to forestall the loss, evidenced by the statement “If only…”

12. Answer: D. ”It must really be frustrating for you. How can I best help you?”

This response reflects the pain due to loss. A helping relationship can be forged by showing empathy and concern.

  • Option A: This is not therapeutic since it passes the buck or responsibility to the clergy.
  • Option B: This response is not therapeutic because it gives the client the impression that she is right which prevents the client from reconsidering her thoughts.
  • Option C: This statement passes judgment on the client.

13. Answer: D. Giving broad opening

Broad opening technique allows the client to take the initiative in introducing the topic.

  • Options A, B, and C are all therapeutic techniques but these are not exemplified by the nurse’s statement.

14. Answer: B. Suicidal ideation

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The client’s statement is a verbal cue of suicidal ideation, not anxiety. While suicide is common among clients with major depression, this occurs when their depression starts to lift. Hopelessness indicates no alternatives available and may lead to suicide, the statement and nonverbal cue of the client indicate suicide.

15. Answer: A. Remove all potentially harmful items from the client’s room.

Accessibility of the means of suicide increases the lethality. Allowing patient to express feelings and setting a no-suicide contract are interventions for a suicidal client but blocking the means of suicide is a priority.

  • Option C: Increasing self-esteem is an intervention for depressed clients bur not specifically for suicide.

16. Answer: A. Establishing relationship with the opposite sex and career planning.

The client belongs to the adolescent stage. The adolescent establishes his sense of identity by making decisions regarding familial, occupational and social roles. The adolescent emancipates himself from the family and decides what career to pursue, what set of friends to have and what value system to uphold.

  • Option B: This refers to the middle adulthood stage concerned with transmitting his values to the next generation to ensure his immortality through the perpetuation of his culture.
  • Option C: This reflects school age which is concerned with the pursuit of knowledge and skills to deal with the environment both in the present and in the future.
  • Option D: The stage of young adulthood is concerned with the development of an intimate relationship with the opposite sex, the establishment of a safe and congenial family environment and building of one’s lifework.

17. Answer: B. Dependent

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A client with dependent personality is predisposed to develop asthma.

  • Option A: The conforming non-assertive client is predisposed to develop hypertension because of the tendency to repress rage.
  • Option C: The perfectionist and compulsive tend to develop a migraine.
  • Option D: The masochistic, self-sacrificing type are prone to develop rheumatoid arthritis.

18. Answer: C. A living, learning or working environment.

A therapeutic milieu refers to a broad conceptual approach in which all aspects of the environment are channeled to provide a therapeutic environment for the client. The six environmental elements include structure, safety, norms, limit setting, balance and unit modification.

  • Option A: Behavioral approach in psychiatric care is based on the premise that behavior can be learned or unlearned through the use of reward and punishment.
  • Option B: Cognitive approach to change behavior is done by correcting distorted perceptions and irrational beliefs to correct maladaptive behaviors.
  • Option D: This is not congruent with the therapeutic milieu.

19. Answer: C. Place in semi-fowlers position and render O2 inhalation as ordered

Since psychophysiological disorder has an organic basis, priority intervention is directed towards disease-specific management. Failure to address the medical condition of the client may be a life threat.

  • Options A and B. The client has a physical symptom that is adversely affected by psychological factors. Verbalization of feelings in a non-threatening environment and involvement in relaxing activities are an adaptive way of dealing with stressors. However, these are not the priority.
  • Option D: Helping the client connect the physical symptoms with the emotional problems can be done when the client is ready.

20. Answer: C. “You seem to have concerns about going home.”

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This statement reflects how the client feels. Showing empathy can encourage the client to talk which is important as an alternative more adaptive way of coping with stressors.

  • Option A: Giving false reassurance is not therapeutic.
  • Option B: While this technique explores plans after discharge, it does not focus on the expression of feelings.
  • Option D: This close-ended question does not encourage verbalization of feelings.

21. Answer: C. Comfort with one’s sexuality

The nurse must be accepting, empathetic and non-judgmental to patients who disclose concerns regarding sexuality. This can happen only when the nurse has reconciled and accepted her feelings and beliefs related to sexuality.

  • Options A, B, and D are important considerations, but these are not the priority.

22. Answer: D. It is the desire to live or involve in reactions of the opposite sex

Gender identity disorder is a strong and persistent desire to be the other sex.

  • Option A: This is fetishism.
  • Option B: This refers to masochism.
  • Option C: This describes exhibitionism.

23. Answer: B. Sexual arousal

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Sexual arousal or excitement refers to attaining and maintaining the physiologic requirements for sexual intercourse.

  • Option A: Sexual Desire refers to the ability, interest or willingness for sexual stimulation.
  • Option C: Orgasm refers to the peak of the sexual response where the female has vaginal contractions for the female and ejaculatory contractions for the male.
  • Option D: Resolution is the final phase of the sexual response in which the organs and the body systems gradually return to the unaroused state.

24. Answer: B. Sexual Arousal Disorder

This describes sexual arousal disorder.

  • Option A: Sexual Desire Disorder refers to the persistent and recurrent lack of desire or willingness for sexual intercourse.
  • Option C: Orgasm Disorder is the inability to complete the sexual response cycle because of the inability to achieve an orgasm.
  • Option D: Sexual Pain Disorder is characterized by genital pain before, during or after sexual intercourse.

25. Answer: D. “I only need access to your arm. Putting up your sleeve is fine.”

The nurse needs to deal with the client with sexually connotative behavior in a casual, matter of fact way.

  • Options A and B: These responses are not therapeutic because they are challenging and rejecting.
  • Option C: Threatening the client is not therapeutic.

26. Answer: A. What is causing you to become agitated?

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In a non-violent aggressive behavior, help the client identify the stressor or the true object of hostility. This helps reveal unresolved issues so that they may be confronted.

  • Option B: Pacing is a tension relieving measure for an agitated client.
  • Option C: This is a threatening statement that can heighten the client’s tension.
  • Option D: Seclusion is used when less restrictive measures have failed.

27. Answer: D. Initiate confinement measures

The proper procedure for dealing with harmful behavior is to first try to calm patient verbally. When verbal and psychopharmacologic interventions are not adequate to handle the aggressiveness, seclusion or restraints may be applicable.

  • Options A, B and C are appropriate approaches during the escalation phase of aggression.

28. Answer: B. A mature, experienced nurse

The unstable, aggressive client should be assigned to the most experienced nurse.

  • Options A, C, and D. A shy, inexperienced, soft-spoken nurse may feel intimidated by the angry patient.

29. Answer: A. Taking a directive role in verbalizing feelings

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Taking a directive role in the client’s verbalization of feelings can decrease the client’s anger.

  • Option B: A confrontational approach can be threatening and adds to the client’s tension.
  • Options C and D: Use of restraints and isolation may be required if less restrictive interventions are unsuccessful.

30. Answer: D. The staff carried out less restrictive measures but were unsuccessful.

This documentation indicates that the client has been placed in restraints after the least restrictive measures failed in containing the client’s violent behavior.

31. Answer: C. Manifest enduring patterns of inflexible behaviors

Personality disorders are characterized by inflexible traits and characteristics that are lifelong.

  • Options A and D. This disorder is manifested by life-long patterns of behavior. The client with this disorder will not likely present himself for treatment unless something has gone wrong in his life so he may not recover from therapeutic intervention.
  • Option B: Medications are generally not recommended for personality disorders.

32. Answer: D. Antisocial

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These are the characteristics of an individual with an antisocial personality.

  • Option A: Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by grandiosity and a need for constant admiration from others.
  • Option B: Individuals with paranoid personality demonstrate a pattern of distrust and suspiciousness and interprets others motives as threatening.
  • Option C: Individuals with histrionic have excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behaviors.

33. Answer: B. Reaction formation

Reaction formation is the adoption of behavior or feelings that are exactly opposite of one’s true emotions.

  • Option A: Denial is a refusal to accept a painful reality.
  • Option C: Rationalization is attempting to justify one’s behavior by presenting reasons that sound logical.
  • Option D: Projection is attributing of one’s behaviors and feelings to another person.

34. Answer: A. Lack of self-esteem, strong dependency needs, and impulsive behavior

These are the characteristics of a client with borderline personality.

  • Option B: This describes the avoidant personality.
  • Option C: These are the characteristics of a client with paranoid personality.
  • Option D: This describes the obsessive compulsive personality

35. Answer: D. Ensuring she adheres to certain restrictions

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The client is manipulative. The client must be informed about the policies, expectations, rules and regulation upon admission.

  • Option A: Limits should be firmly and consistently implemented. Flexibility and bargaining are not therapeutic in dealing with a manipulative client.
  • Option B: There is no specific medication prescribed for this condition.
  • Option C: This is not part of the care plan. Interaction with other clients are allowed, but the client should be observed and given limits in her attempt to manipulate and dominate others.

36. Answer: D. Ego integrity vs. despair

The client belongs to the middle adulthood stage (30 to 65 yrs.) The developmental task generativity is characterized by concern and care for others. It is a productive and creative stage.

  • Option A: Infancy stage (0 – 18 mos.) is concerned with the gratification of oral needs.
  • Option B: School Age child (6 – 12 yrs.) is characterized by acquisition of school competencies and social skills.
  • Option C: Late adulthood ( 60 and above) Concerned with reflection on the past and his contributions to others and face the future.

37. Answer: B. to deal with feelings and thoughts that are not acceptable

Projection is a defense mechanism where one attributes one’s feelings and inadequacies to others to reduce anxiety.

  • Option A: This is not true in all instances of projection.
  • Options C and D. This focuses on the self rather than others

38. Answer: C. “I don’t know anything about that. You are afraid of being harmed.”

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This presents reality and acknowledges the clients feeling.

  • Options A and B are not therapeutic responses because these disagree with the client’s false belief and makes the client feel challenged.
  • Option D unnecessary exploration of the false.

39. Answer: B. Pseudoparkinsonism

Pseudoparkinsonism is a side effect of antipsychotic drugs characterized by mask-like faces, pill rolling tremors, muscle rigidity.

  • Option A: Tardive dyskinesia is manifested by lip smacking, wormlike movement of the tongue.
  • Option C: Akinesia is characterized by a feeling of weakness and muscle fatigue.
  • Option D.: Dystonia is manifested by torticollis and rolling back of the eyes

40. Answer: B. Transference

Transference is a positive or negative feeling associated with a significant person in the client’s past that are unconsciously assigned to another.

  • Option A: Splitting is a defense mechanism commonly seen in a client with personality disorder in which the world is perceived as all good or all bad.
  • Option C: Countertransference is a phenomenon where the nurse shifts feelings assigned to someone in her past to the patient.
  • Option D: Resistance is the client’s refusal to submit himself to the care of the nurse

41. Answer: B. Adventitious

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Adventitious crisis is a crisis involving a traumatic event. It is not part of everyday life.

  • Option A: Situational crisis is from an external source that upset ones psychological equilibrium.
  • Options C and D. Are the same. They are transitional or developmental periods in life

42. Answer: B. Touch the client to show acceptance and empathy

The client finds touch intrusive and therefore should be avoided.

  • Option A: Privacy is one of the rights of a victim of rape.
  • Option C: The client is anxious. Accompanying the client in a quiet room ensures safety and offers emotional support.
  • Option D: Guilt feeling is common among rape victims. They should not be blamed.

43. Answer: C. She postpones the physical assessment until the client is calm

The nurse acts as a patient advocate as she protects the client from psychological harm.

  • Option A: The nurse acts a counselor.
  • Option B: The nurse acts as a technician.
  •  Option D: This exemplifies the role of a teacher

44. Answer: D. Help her return to her pre-rape level of function

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The goal of crisis intervention to help the client return to her level of function prior to the crisis.

  • Options A, B, and C are interventions or strategies to attain the goal

45. Answer: D. Post traumatic disorder

Post-traumatic stress disorder is characterized by flashback, irritability, difficulty falling asleep and concentrating following an extremely traumatic event. This lasts for more that one month.

  • Option A: Adjustment disorder is the maladaptive reaction to stressful events characterized by anxiety, depression, and work or social impairments. This occurs within three (3) months after the event.
  • Option B: Somatoform disorders are anxiety related disorders characterized by the presence of physical symptoms without demonstrable organic basis.
  • Option C: Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by chronic, excessive anxiety for at least 6 months

46. Answer: C. Severe

The client’s manifestations indicate severe anxiety. Option A: Mild anxiety is manifested by slight muscle tension, slight fidgeting, alertness,

  • Option A: Mild anxiety is manifested by slight muscle tension, slight fidgeting, alertness, the ability to concentrate and capable of problem-solving.
  • Option B: Moderate muscle tension, increased vital signs, periodic slow pacing, increased rate of speech and difficulty in concentrating are noted in moderate anxiety.
  • Option D: Panic level of anxiety is characterized immobilization, incoherence, feeling of being overwhelmed and disorganization

47. Answer: B. a subjectively perceived threat

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Anxiety is caused by a subjectively perceived threat.

  • Option A: Fear is caused by an objective threat.
  • Option C: A depressed client internalizes hostility.
  • Option D: Mania is due to masked depression

48. Answer: A. Give specific instructions using speak in concise statements.

The client has narrowed perceptual field. Lengthy explanations cannot be followed by the client.

  • Option B: The client will not be able to identify the cause of anxiety.
  • Options C and D: The client has difficulty concentrating and will not be able to focus.

49. Answer: B. Valium

Antianxiety.

  • Option A: Antidepressant.
  • Option C: Antipsychotic.
  • Option D: Antimanic

50. Answer: B. Take the medication after meals.

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Antianxiety medications cause G.I. upset so it should be taken after meals.

  • Options A: This is specific for antidepressant MAOI. Taking tyramine rich food can cause hypertensive crisis.
  • Option C: Valium causes dependency. In which case, the medication should be gradually withdrawn to prevent the occurrence of convulsion.
  • Option D: The dose of Valium should not be doubled if the previous dose was not taken. It can intensify the CNS depressant effects.

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Mental Health and Psychiatric Disorders


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