This is a 50-item examination about Psychiatric Nursing. Questions in this exam cover management and care for patients with Schizophrenia. If you are preparing for the boards or NCLEX then this exam can sharpen your knowledge and understanding of the topic.
We also recommend you to try and answer all exams on our NCLEX page!
EXAM TIP: Free yourself from negativism. Be positive. Humble yourself. Be open to new learning and don’t pretend that you know everything. Don’t be easily intimidated.
In order to succeed, we must first believe that we can.
― Nikos Kazantzakis
Topics or concepts included in this exam are:
- Schizophrenia Care and Management
- Read each question carefully and choose the best answer.
- You are given one minute per question. Spend your time wisely!
- Answers and rationales (if any) are given below. Be sure to read them.
- If you need more clarifications, please direct them to the comments section.
In Exam Mode: All questions are shown but the results, answers, and rationales (if any) will only be given after you’ve finished the quiz. You are given 1 minute per question.
Psychiatric Nursing Practice Quiz #9 (50 Questions)
Practice Mode: This is an interactive version of the Text Mode. All questions are given on a single page and correct answers, rationales or explanations (if any) are immediately shown after you have selected an answer. No time limit for this exam.
Psychiatric Nursing Practice Quiz #9 (50 Questions)
In Text Mode: All questions and answers are given for reading and answering at your own pace. You can also copy this exam and make a printout.
1. The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following outcomes is the least desirable?
A. The client spends more time by himself.
B. The client doesn’t engage in delusional thinking.
C. The client doesn’t harm himself or others.
D. The client demonstrates the ability to meet his own self-care needs.
2. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Impaired verbal communication for a client with schizotypal personality disorder. Based on this nursing diagnosis, which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Helping the client to participate in social interactions
B. Establishing a one-on-one relationship with the client
C. Establishing alternative forms of communication
D. Allowing the client to decide when he wants to participate in verbal communication with the nurse
3. Since admission 4 days ago, a client has refused to take a shower, stating, “There are poison crystals hidden in the shower head. They’ll kill me if I take a shower.” Which nursing action is most appropriate?
A. Dismantling the showerhead and showing the client that there is nothing in it
B. Explaining that other clients are complaining about the client’s body odor
C. Asking a security officer to assist in giving the client a shower
D. Accepting these fears and allowing the client to take a sponge bath
4. Drug therapy with thioridazine (Mellaril) shouldn’t exceed a daily dose of 800 mg to prevent which adverse reaction?
B. Respiratory arrest
C. Tourette syndrome
D. Retinal pigmentation
5. A client with paranoid personality disorder is admitted to a psychiatric facility. Which remark by the nurse would best establish rapport and encourage the client to confide in the nurse?
A. “I get upset once in a while, too.”
B. “I know just how you feel. I’d feel the same way in your situation.”
C. “I worry, too, when I think people are talking about me.”
D. “At times, it’s normal not to trust anyone.”
A. Several minutes
B. Several hours
C. Several days
D. Several weeks
7. A client is about to be discharged with a prescription for the antipsychotic agent haloperidol (Haldol), 10 mg by mouth twice per day. During a discharge teaching session, the nurse should provide which instruction to the client?
A. Take the medication 1 hour before a meal.
B. Decrease the dosage if signs of illness decrease.
C. Apply a sunscreen before being exposed to the sun.
D. Increase the dosage up to 50 mg twice per day if signs of illness don’t decrease.
8. A client with paranoid schizophrenia repeatedly uses profanity during an activity therapy session. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
A. “Your behavior won’t be tolerated. Go to your room immediately.”
B. “You’re just doing this to get back at me for making you come to therapy.”
C. “Your cursing is interrupting the activity. Take time out in your room for 10 minutes.”
D. “I’m disappointed in you. You can’t control yourself even for a few minutes.”
9. Which of the following is one of the advantages of the newer antipsychotic medication risperidone (Risperdal)?
A. The absence of anticholinergic effects
B. A lower incidence of extrapyramidal effects
C. Photosensitivity and sedation
D. No incidence of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
10. The etiology of schizophrenia is best described by:
A. genetics due to a faulty dopamine receptor.
B. environmental factors and poor parenting.
C. structural and neurobiological factors.
D. a combination of biological, psychological, and environmental factors.
11. A client with schizophrenia who receives fluphenazine (Prolixin) develops pseudoparkinsonism and akinesia. What drug would the nurse administer to minimize extrapyramidal symptoms?
12. A client with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia comments to the nurse, “How do I know what is really in those pills?” Which of the following is the best response?
A. Say, “You know it’s your medicine.”
B. Allow him to open the individual wrappers of the medication.
C. Say, “Don’t worry about what is in the pills. It’s what is ordered.”
D. Ignore the comment because it’s probably a joke.
13. A client tells the nurse that people from Mars are going to invade the earth. Which response by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
A. “That must be frightening to you. Can you tell me how you feel about it?”
B. “There are no people living on Mars.”
C. “What do you mean when you say they’re going to invade the earth?”
D. “I know you believe the earth is going to be invaded, but I don’t believe that.”
14. A client with schizophrenia tells the nurse he hears the voices of his dead parents. To help the client ignore the voices, the nurse should recommend that he:
A. sit in a quiet, dark room and concentrate on the voices.
B. listen to a personal stereo through headphones and sing along with the music.
C. call a friend and discuss the voices and his feelings about them.
D. engage in strenuous exercise.
15. A client with schizophrenia is receiving antipsychotic medication. Which nursing diagnosis may be appropriate for this client?
A. Ineffective protection related to blood dyscrasias
B. Urinary frequency related to adverse effects of antipsychotic medication
C. Risk for injury related to a severely decreased level of consciousness
D. Risk for injury related to electrolyte disturbances
16. A client with persistent, severe schizophrenia has been treated with phenothiazines for the past 17 years. Now the client’s speech is garbled as a result of drug-induced rhythmic tongue protrusion. What is another name for this extrapyramidal symptom?
D. Tardive dyskinesia
17. The nurse is assigned to a client with catatonic schizophrenia. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client’s plan of care?
A. Meeting all of the client’s physical needs
B. Giving the client an opportunity to express concerns
C. Administering lithium carbonate (Lithonate) as prescribed
D. Providing a quiet environment where the client can be alone
18. A client with a history of medication noncompliance is receiving outpatient treatment for chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. The physician is most likely to prescribe which medication for this client?
A. chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
B. imipramine (Tofranil)
C. lithium carbonate (Lithane)
D. fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate)
19. Propranolol (Inderal) is used in the mental health setting to manage which of the following conditions?
A. Antipsychotic-induced akathisia and anxiety
B. The manic phase of bipolar illness as a mood stabilizer
C. Delusions for clients suffering from schizophrenia
D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) to reduce ritualistic behavior
20. Every day for the past 2 weeks, a client with schizophrenia stands up during group therapy and screams, “Get out of here right now! The elevator bombs are going to explode in 3 minutes!” The next time this happens, how should the nurse respond?
A. “Why do you think there is a bomb in the elevator?”
B. “That is the same thing you said in yesterday’s session.”
C. “I know you think there are bombs in the elevator, but there aren’t.”
D. “If you have something to say, you must do it according to our group rules.”
21. A 26-year-old client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with acute onset of schizophrenia. His physician prescribes the phenothiazine chlorpromazine (Thorazine), 100 mg by mouth four times per day. Before administering the drug, the nurse reviews the client’s medication history. Concomitant use of which drug is likely to increase the risk of extrapyramidal effects?
22. A client, age 36, with paranoid schizophrenia believes the room is bugged by the Central Intelligence Agency and that his roommate is a foreign spy. The client has never had a romantic relationship, has no contact with family members, and hasn’t been employed in the last 14 years. Based on Erikson’s theories, the nurse should recognize that this client is in which stage of psychosocial development?
A. Autonomy versus shame and doubt
B. Generativity versus stagnation
C. Integrity versus despair
D. Trust versus mistrust
23. During a group therapy session in the psychiatric unit, a client constantly interrupts with impulsive behavior and exaggerated stories that cast her as a hero or princess. She also manipulates the group with attention-seeking behaviors, such as sexual comments and angry outbursts. The nurse realizes that these behaviors are typical of:
A. paranoid personality disorder.
B. avoidant personality disorder.
C. histrionic personality disorder.
D. borderline personality disorder.
24. The nurse is teaching a psychiatric client about her prescribed drugs, chlorpromazine and benztropine. Why is benztropine administered?
A. To reduce psychotic symptoms
B. To reduce extrapyramidal symptoms
C. To control nausea and vomiting
D. To relieve anxiety
25. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a tentative diagnosis of psychosis. Her physician prescribes the phenothiazine thioridazine (Mellaril) 50 mg by mouth three times per day. Phenothiazines differ from central nervous system (CNS) depressants in their sedative effects by producing:
A. deeper sleep than CNS depressants.
B. greater sedation than CNS depressants.
C. a calming effect from which the client is easily aroused.
D. more prolonged sedative effects, making the client more difficult to arouse.
26. A woman is admitted to the psychiatric emergency department. Her significant other reports that she has difficulty sleeping, has poor judgment, and is incoherent at times. The client’s speech is rapid and loose. She reports being a special messenger from the Messiah. She has a history of depressed mood for which she has been taking an antidepressant. The nurse suspects which diagnosis?
B. Paranoid personality
C. Bipolar illness
D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
27. A client with paranoid schizophrenia is admitted to the psychiatric unit of a hospital. Nursing assessment should include careful observation of the client’s:
A. thinking, perceiving, and decision-making skills.
B. verbal and nonverbal communication processes.
C. affect and behavior.
D. psychomotor activity.
A. Monthly blood tests will be necessary.
B. Report a sore throat or fever to the physician immediately.
C. Blood pressure must be monitored for hypertension.
D. Stop the medication when symptoms subside.
29. Important teaching for clients receiving antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol (Haldol) includes which of the following instructions?
A. Use sunscreen because of photosensitivity.
B. Take the antipsychotic medication with food.
C. Have routine blood tests to determine levels of the medication.
D. Abstain from eating aged cheese.
30. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include which of the following?
A. Hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking
B. Somatic delusions, echolalia, and a flat affect
C. Waxy flexibility, alogia, and apathy
D. Flat affect, avolition, and anhedonia
31. A client with chronic schizophrenia receives 20 mg of fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate) by I.M. injection. Three days later, the client has muscle contractions that contort the neck. This client is exhibiting which extrapyramidal reaction?
D. Tardive dyskinesia
32. Hormonal effects of the antipsychotic medications include which of the following?
A. Retrograde ejaculation and gynecomastia
B. Dysmenorrhea and increased vaginal bleeding
C. Polydipsia and dysmenorrhea
D. Akinesia and dysphasia
33. A client is unable to get out of bed and get dressed unless the nurse prompts every step. This is an example of which behavior?
A. Word salad
34. An agitated and incoherent client, age 29, comes to the emergency department with complaints of visual and auditory hallucinations. The history reveals that the client was hospitalized for paranoid schizophrenia from ages 20 to 21. The physician prescribes haloperidol (Haldol), 5 mg I.M. The nurse understands that this drug is used for this client to treat:
D. tardive dyskinesia.
35. Yesterday, a client with schizophrenia began treatment with haloperidol (Haldol). Today, the nurse notices that the client is holding his head to one side and complaining of neck and jaw spasms. What should the nurse do?
A. Assume that the client is posturing.
B. Tell the client to lie down and relax.
C. Evaluate the client for adverse reactions to haloperidol.
D. Put the client on the list for the physician to see tomorrow.
36. A client receiving fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate) therapy develops pseudoparkinsonism. The physician is likely to prescribe which drug to control this extrapyramidal effect?
37. Important teaching for a client receiving risperidone (Risperdal) would include advising the client to:
A. double the dose if missed to maintain a therapeutic level.
B. be sure to take the drug with a meal because it’s very irritating to the stomach.
C. discontinue the drug if the client reports weight gain.
D. notify the physician if the client notices an increase in bruising.
38. A client is admitted to the psychiatric hospital with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia. During the physical examination, the client’s arm remains outstretched after the nurse obtains the pulse and blood pressure, and the nurse must reposition the arm. This client is exhibiting:
C. waxy flexibility.
39. A client with borderline personality disorder becomes angry when he is told that today’s psychotherapy session with the nurse will be delayed 30 minutes because of an emergency. When the session finally begins, the client expresses anger. Which response by the nurse would be most helpful in dealing with the client’s anger?
A. “If it had been your emergency, I would have made the other client wait.”
B. “I know it’s frustrating to wait. I’m sorry this happened.”
C. “You had to wait. Can we talk about how this is making you feel right now?”
D. “I really care about you and I’ll never let this happen again.”
40. A client begins clozapine (Clozaril) therapy after several other antipsychotic agents fail to relieve her psychotic symptoms. The nurse instructs her to return for weekly white blood cell (WBC) counts to assess for which adverse reaction?
41. Which non-antipsychotic medication is used to treat some clients with schizoaffective disorder?
A. phenelzine (Nardil)
B. chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
C. lithium carbonate (Lithane)
D. imipramine (Tofranil)
42. A client diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder is suffering from schizophrenia with elements of which of the following disorders?
A. Personality disorder
B. Mood disorder
C. Thought disorder
D. Amnestic disorder
43. When teaching the family of a client with schizophrenia, the nurse should provide which information?
A. Relapse can be prevented if the client takes the medication.
B. Support is available to help family members meet their own needs.
C. Improvement should occur if the client has a stimulating environment.
D. Stressful family situations can precipitate a relapse in the client.
44. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with active psychosis. The physician diagnoses schizophrenia after ruling out several other conditions. Schizophrenia is characterized by:
A. loss of identity and self-esteem.
B. multiple personalities and decreased self-esteem.
C. disturbances in affect, perception, and thought content and form.
D. persistent memory impairment and confusion.
45. The nurse is providing care to a client with a catatonic type of schizophrenia who exhibits extreme negativism. To help the client meet his basic needs, the nurse should:
A. ask the client which activity he would prefer to do first.
B. negotiate a time when the client will perform activities.
C. tell the client specifically and concisely what needs to be done.
D. prepare the client ahead of time for the activity.
46. The nurse is caring for a client who experiences false sensory perceptions with no basis in reality. These perceptions are known as:
C. loose associations.
47. The nurse is aware that antipsychotic medications may cause which of the following adverse effects?
48. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of delusions of grandeur. This diagnosis reflects a belief that one is:
A. highly important or famous.
B. being persecuted.
C. connected to events unrelated to oneself.
D. responsible for the evil in the world.
49. A man with a 5-year history of multiple psychiatric admissions is brought to the emergency department by the police. He was found wandering the streets disheveled, shoeless, and confused. Based on his previous medical records and current behavior, he is diagnosed with chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. The nurse should assign the highest priority to which nursing diagnosis?
50. A client’s medication order reads, “Thioridazine (Mellaril) 200 mg P.O. q.i.d. and 100 mg P.O. p.r.n.” The nurse should:
A. administer the medication as prescribed.
B. question the physician about the order.
C. administer the order for 200 mg P.O. q.i.d. but not for 100 mg P.O. p.r.n.
D. administer the medication as prescribed but observe the client closely for adverse effects.
Answers & Rationale
Here are the answers and rationale for this exam. Counter check your answers to those below and tell us your scores. If you have any disputes or need more clarification on a certain question, please direct them to the comments section.
1. Answer: A. The client spends more time by himself.
- Option A: The client with schizophrenia is commonly socially isolated and withdrawn; therefore, having the client spend more time by himself wouldn’t be a desirable outcome. Rather, a desirable outcome would specify that the client spends more time with other clients and staff on the unit. Delusions are false personal beliefs.
- Option B: Reducing or eliminating delusional thinking using talking therapy and antipsychotic medications would be a desirable outcome.
- Option C: Protecting the client and others from harm is a desirable client outcome achieved by close observation, removing any dangerous objects, and administering medications.
- Option D: Because the client with schizophrenia may have difficulty meeting his or her own self-care needs, fostering the ability to perform self-care independently is a desirable client outcome.
2. Answer: B. Establishing a one-on-one relationship with the client
- Option B: By establishing a one-on-one relationship, the nurse helps the client learn how to interact with people in new situations.
- Options A, C, and D: The other options are appropriate but should take place only after the nurse-client relationship is established.
3. Answer: D. Accepting these fears and allowing the client to take a sponge bath
- Option D: By acknowledging the client’s fears, the nurse can arrange to meet the client’s hygiene needs in another way.
- Option A: Because these fears are real to the client, providing a demonstration of reality wouldn’t be effective at this time.
- Options B and C: These would violate the client’s rights by shaming or embarrassing the client.
4. Answer: D. Retinal pigmentation
- Option D: Retinal pigmentation may occur if the thioridazine dosage exceeds 800 mg per day.
- Options A, B, and C: The other options don’t occur as a result of exceeding this dose.
5. Answer: A. “I get upset once in a while, too.”
- Option A: Sharing a benign, nonthreatening, personal fact or feeling helps the nurse establish rapport and encourages the client to confide in the nurse. The nurse can’t know how the client feels.
- Option B: Telling the client otherwise would justify the suspicions of a paranoid client; furthermore, the client relies on the nurse to interpret reality.
- Option C: This is incorrect because it focuses on the nurse’s feelings, not the client’s.
- Option D: This wouldn’t help establish rapport or encourage the client to confide in the nurse.
6. Answer: D. Several weeks
- Option D: Although most phenothiazines produce some effects within minutes to hours, their antipsychotic effects may take several weeks to appear.
7. Answer: C. Apply a sunscreen before being exposed to the sun.
- Option C: Because haloperidol can cause photosensitivity and precipitate severe sunburn, the nurse should instruct the client to apply a sunscreen before exposure to the sun.
- Options A, B, and D: The nurse also should teach the client to take haloperidol with meals — not 1 hour before — and should instruct the client not to decrease or increase the dosage unless the physician orders it.
8. Answer: A. “Your behavior won’t be tolerated. Go to your room immediately.”
- Option A: The nurse should set limits on client behavior to ensure a comfortable environment for all clients. The nurse should accept hostile or quarrelsome client outbursts within limits without becoming personally offended.
- Option B: This is incorrect because it implies that the client’s actions reflect feelings toward the staff instead of the client’s own misery.
- Option D: Judgmental remarks may decrease the client’s self-esteem.
9. Answer: B. A lower incidence of extrapyramidal effects
- Option B: Risperdal has a lower incidence of extrapyramidal effects than the typical antipsychotics.
- Option A: Risperdal does produce anticholinergic effects and neuroleptic malignant syndrome can occur.
- Option C: Photosensitivity isn’t an advantage.
10. Answer: D. a combination of biological, psychological, and environmental factors.
- Option D: A reliable genetic marker hasn’t been determined for schizophrenia. However, studies of twins and adopted siblings have strongly implicated a genetic predisposition. Since the mid-19th century, excessive dopamine activity in the brain has also been suggested as a causal factor. Communication and the family system have been studied as contributing factors in the development of schizophrenia. Therefore, a combination of biological, psychological, and environmental factors are thought to cause schizophrenia.
11. Answer: A. benztropine (Cogentin)
- Option A: Benztropine is an anticholinergic drug administered to reduce extrapyramidal adverse effects in the client taking antipsychotic drugs. It works by restoring the equilibrium between the neurotransmitters acetylcholine and dopamine in the central nervous system (CNS).
- Option B: Dantrolene, a hydantoin drug that reduces the catabolic processes, is administered to alleviate the symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a potentially fatal adverse effect of antipsychotic drugs.
- Option C: Clonazepam, a benzodiazepine drug that depresses the CNS, is administered to control seizure activity.
- Option D: Diazepam, a benzodiazepine drug, is administered to reduce anxiety.
12. Answer: B. Allow him to open the individual wrappers of the medication.
- Option B: This is correct because allowing a paranoid client to open his medication can help reduce suspiciousness.
- Option A: This is incorrect because the client doesn’t know that it’s his medication and he’s obviously suspicious.
- Options C and D: Telling the client not to worry or ignoring the comment isn’t supportive and doesn’t offer reassurance.
13. Answer: A. “That must be frightening to you. Can you tell me how you feel about it?”
- Option A: This response addresses the client’s underlying fears without feeding the delusion.
- Option B: Refuting the client’s delusion would increase anxiety and reinforce the delusion.
- Option C: Asking the client to elaborate on the delusion would also reinforce it.
- Option D: Voicing disbelief about the delusion wouldn’t help the client deal with underlying fears.
14. Answer: B. listen to a personal stereo through headphones and sing along with the music.
- Option B: Increasing the amount of auditory stimulation, such as by listening to music through headphones, may make it easier for the client to focus on external sounds and ignore internal sounds from auditory hallucinations.
- Option A: It would make it harder for the client to ignore the hallucinations.
- Option C: Talking about the voices would encourage the client to focus on them.
- Option D: This is incorrect because exercise alone wouldn’t provide enough auditory stimulation to drown out the voices.
15. Answer: A. Ineffective protection related to blood dyscrasias
- Option A: Antipsychotic medications may cause neutropenia and granulocytopenia, life-threatening blood dyscrasias, that warrant a nursing diagnosis of Ineffective protection related to blood dyscrasias. These medications also have anticholinergic effects, such as urine retention, dry mouth, and constipation.
- Option B: Urinary frequency isn’t an approved nursing diagnosis.
- Option C: Although antipsychotic medications may cause sedation, they don’t severely decrease the level of consciousness.
- Option D: These drugs don’t cause electrolyte disturbances.
16. Answer: D. Tardive dyskinesia
- Option D: An adverse reaction to phenothiazines, tardive dyskinesia refers to choreiform tongue movements that commonly are irreversible and may interfere with speech.
- Option A: Dystonia refers to involuntary contraction of a muscle group.
- Option B: Akathisia is restlessness or inability to sit still.
- Option C: Pseudoparkinsonism describes a group of symptoms that mimic those of Parkinson’s disease.
17. Answer: A. Meeting all of the client’s physical needs
- Option A: Because a client with catatonic schizophrenia can’t meet physical needs independently, the nurse must provide for all of these needs, including adequate food and fluid intake, exercise, and elimination.
- Option B: This client is incapable of expressing concerns; however, the nurse should try to verbalize the message conveyed by the client’s nonverbal behavior.
- Option C: Lithium is used to treat mania, not catatonic schizophrenia.
- Option D: Despite the client’s mute, unresponsive state, the nurse should provide nonthreatening stimulation and should spend time with the client, not leave the client alone all the time. Although aware of the environment, the client doesn’t interact with it actively; the nurse’s support and presence can be reassuring.
18. Answer: D. fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate)
- Option D: Fluphenazine decanoate is a long-acting antipsychotic agent given by injection. Because it has a 4-week duration of action, it’s commonly prescribed for outpatients with a history of medication noncompliance.
- Option A: Chlorpromazine, also an antipsychotic agent, must be administered daily to maintain adequate plasma levels, which necessitates compliance with the dosage schedule.
- Options B and C: Imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, and lithium carbonate, a mood stabilizer, are rarely used to treat clients with chronic schizophrenia.
19. Answer: A. Antipsychotic-induced akathisia and anxiety
- Option A: Propranolol is a potent beta-adrenergic blocker and produces a sedating effect; therefore, it’s used to treat antipsychotic induced akathisia and anxiety.
- Option B: Lithium (Lithobid) is used to stabilize clients with bipolar illness.
- Option C: Antipsychotics are used to treat delusions.
- Option D: Some antidepressants have been effective in treating OCD.
20. Answer: C. “I know you think there are bombs in the elevator, but there aren’t.”
- Option C: This C is the most therapeutic response because it orients the client to reality.
- Options A and B: These are condescending.
- Option D: This sounds punitive and could embarrass the client.
21. Answer: B. droperidol (Inapsine)
- Option B: When administered with any phenothiazine, droperidol may increase the risk of extrapyramidal effects.
- Options A, C, and D: The other options are incorrect.
22. Answer: D. Trust versus mistrust
- Option D: This client’s paranoid ideation indicates difficulty trusting others.
- Option A: The stage of autonomy versus shame and doubt deals with separation, cooperation, and self-control.
- Option B: Generativity versus stagnation is the normal stage for this client’s chronologic age.
- Option C: Integrity versus despair is the stage for accepting the positive and negative aspects of one’s life, which would be difficult or impossible for this client.
23. Answer: C. histrionic personality disorder.
- Option C: This client’s behaviors are typical of histrionic personality disorder, which is marked by excessive emotionality and attention seeking. The client constantly seeks and demands attention, approval, or praise; may be seductive in behavior, appearance, or conversation; and is uncomfortable except when she is the center of attention.
- Option A: Typically, a client with paranoid personality disorder is suspicious, cold, hostile, and argumentative.
- Option B: Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by anxiety, fear, and social isolation.
- Option D: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by impulsive, unpredictable behavior and unstable, intense interpersonal relationships.
24. Answer: B. To reduce extrapyramidal symptoms
- Option B: Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication, administered to reduce the extrapyramidal adverse effects of chlorpromazine and other antipsychotic medications.
- Options A, C, and D: Benztropine doesn’t reduce psychotic symptoms, relieve anxiety, or control nausea and vomiting.
25. Answer: C. a calming effect from which the client is easily aroused.
- Option C: Shortly after phenothiazine administration, a quieting and calming effect occurs, but the client is easily aroused, alert, and responsive and has good motor coordination.
26. Answer: C. Bipolar illness
- Option C: Bipolar illness is characterized by mood swings from profound depression to elation and euphoria. Delusions of grandeur along with pressured speech are common symptoms of mania.
- Option A: Schizophrenia doesn’t exhibit mood swings from depression to euphoria.
- Option B: Paranoia is characterized by unrealistic suspiciousness and is often accompanied by grandiosity.
- Option D: OCD is a preoccupation with rituals and rules.
27. Answer: A. thinking, perceiving, and decision-making skills.
- Option A: Nursing assessment of a psychotic client should include careful inquiry about and observation of the client’s thinking, perceiving, symbolizing, and decision-making skills and abilities. Assessment of such a client typically reveals alterations in thought content and process, perception, affect, and psychomotor behavior; changes in personality, coping, and sense of self; lack of self-motivation; presence of psychosocial stressors; and degeneration of adaptive functioning.
- Options B, C, and D: Although assessing communication processes, affect, behavior, and psychomotor activity would reveal important information about the client’s condition, the nurse should concentrate on determining whether the client is hallucinating by assessing thought processes and decision-making ability.
28. Answer: B. Report a sore throat or fever to the physician immediately.
- Option B: A sore throat and fever are indications of an infection caused by agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening complication of clozapine.
- Option A: Because of the risk of agranulocytosis, white blood cell (WBC) counts are necessary weekly, not monthly. If the WBC count drops below 3,000/µl, the medication must be stopped.
- Option C: Hypotension may occur in clients taking this medication. Warn the client to stand up slowly to avoid dizziness from orthostatic hypotension.
- Option D: The medication should be continued, even when symptoms have been controlled. If the medication must be stopped, it should be slowly tapered over 1 to 2 weeks and only under the supervision of a physician.
29. Answer: A. Use sunscreen because of photosensitivity. & B. Take the antipsychotic medication with food.
- Options A and B: A and B are both correct in taking HALDOL.
30. Answer: A. Hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking
- Option A: The positive symptoms of schizophrenia are distortions of normal functioning. Option A lists the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
- Options B, C, and D: A flat affect, alogia, apathy, avolition, and anhedonia refer to the negative symptoms. Negative symptoms list the diminution or loss of normal function.
31. Answer: A. Dystonia
- Option A: Dystonia, a common extrapyramidal reaction to fluphenazine decanoate, manifests as muscle spasms in the tongue, face, neck, back, and sometimes the legs.
- Option B: Akinesia refers to decreased or absent movement;
- Option C: Akathisia, to restlessness or inability to sit still; and
- Option D: Tardive dyskinesia, to abnormal muscle movements, particularly around the mouth.
32. Answer: A. Retrograde ejaculation and gynecomastia
- Option A: Decreased libido, retrograde ejaculation, and gynecomastia are all hormonal effects that can occur with antipsychotic medications. Reassure the client that the effects can be reversed or that changing medication may be possible.
- Options C and D: Polydipsia, akinesia, and dysphasia aren’t hormonal effects.
33. Answer: D. Avolition
- Option D: Avolition refers to impairment in the ability to initiate goal-directed activity.
- Option A: Word salad is when a group of words are put together in a random fashion without logical connection.
- Option B: Tangential is where a person never gets to the point of the communication.
- Option C: Perseveration is when a person repeats the same word or idea in response to different questions.
34. Answer: C. psychosis.
- Option C: By treating psychosis, haloperidol, an antipsychotic drug, decreases agitation.
- Options A and B: Haloperidol is used to treat dyskinesia in clients with Tourette syndrome and to treat dementia in elderly clients.
- Option D: Tardive dyskinesia may occur after prolonged haloperidol use; the client should be monitored for this adverse reaction.
35. Answer: C. Evaluate the client for adverse reactions to haloperidol.
- Option C: An antipsychotic agent, such as haloperidol, can cause muscle spasms in the neck, face, tongue, back, and sometimes legs as well as torticollis (twisted neck position). The nurse should be aware of these adverse reactions and assess for related reactions promptly.
- Option A: Although posturing may occur in clients with schizophrenia, it isn’t the same as neck and jaw spasms.
- Option B: Having the client relax can reduce tension-induced muscle stiffness but not drug-induced muscle spasms.
- Option D: When a client develops a new sign or symptom, the nurse should consider an adverse drug reaction as the possible cause and obtain treatment immediately, rather than have the client wait.
- Option B: An antiparkinsonian agent, such as amantadine, may be used to control pseudoparkinsonism;
- Option A: Phenytoin is used to treat seizure activity.
- Options C and D: diphenhydramine or benztropine may be used to control other extrapyramidal effects.
37. Answer: D. notify the physician if the client notices an increase in bruising.
- Option D: Bruising may indicate blood dyscrasias, so notifying the physician about increased bruising is very important.
- Option A: Don’t double the dose.
- Options B and C: This drug doesn’t irritate the stomach, and weight gain isn’t a problem.
38. Answer: C. waxy flexibility.
- Option C: Waxy flexibility, the ability to assume and maintain awkward or uncomfortable positions for long periods, is characteristic of catatonic schizophrenia. Clients commonly remain in these awkward positions until someone repositions them.
- Option A: Clients with dependency problems may demonstrate suggestibility, a response pattern in which one easily agrees to the ideas and suggestions of others rather than making independent judgments.
- Options B and D: Negativity (for example, resistance to being moved or being asked to cooperate) and retardation (slowed movement) also occur in catatonic clients.
39. Answer: C. “You had to wait. Can we talk about how this is making you feel right now?”
- Option C: This response may diffuse the client’s anger by helping to maintain a therapeutic relationship and addressing the client’s feelings.
- Option A: This wouldn’t address the client’s anger.
- Option B: This is incorrect because the client with a borderline personality disorder blames others for things that happen, so apologizing reinforces the client’s misconceptions.
- Option D: The nurse can’t promise that a delay will never occur again because such matters are outside the nurse’s control.
40. Answer: C. Granulocytopenia
- Option C: Clozapine can cause life-threatening neutropenia or granulocytopenia. To detect this adverse reaction, a WBC count should be performed weekly.
- Options A, B, D: Hepatitis, infection, and systemic dermatitis aren’t adverse reactions of clozapine therapy.
41. Answer: C. lithium carbonate (Lithane)
- Option C: Lithium carbonate, an antimanic drug, is used to treat clients with cyclical schizoaffective disorder, a psychotic disorder once classified under schizophrenia that causes affective symptoms, including manic-like activity. Lithium helps control the affective component of this disorder.
- Option A: Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor prescribed for clients who don’t respond to other antidepressant drugs such as imipramine.
- Option B: Chlordiazepoxide, an antianxiety agent, generally is contraindicated in psychotic clients.
- Option D: Imipramine, primarily considered an antidepressant agent, is also used to treat clients with agoraphobia and those undergoing cocaine detoxification.
42. Answer: B. Mood disorder
- Option B: According to the DSM-IV, schizoaffective disorder refers to clients suffering from schizophrenia with elements of a mood disorder, either mania or depression. The prognosis is generally better than for the other types of schizophrenia, but it’s worse than the prognosis for a mood disorder alone.
- Option A: This is incorrect because personality disorders and psychotic illness aren’t listed together on the same axis.
- Option C: This is incorrect because schizophrenia is a major thought disorder and the question asks for elements of another disorder.
- Option D: Clients with schizoaffective disorder aren’t suffering from schizophrenia and an amnestic disorder.
43. Answer: B. Support is available to help family members meet their own needs.
- Option B: Because family members of a client with schizophrenia face difficult situations and great stress, the nurse should inform them of support services that can help them cope with such problems.
- Options A and C: The nurse should also teach them that medication can’t prevent relapses and that environmental stimuli may precipitate symptoms.
- Option D: Although stress can trigger symptoms, the nurse shouldn’t make the family feel responsible for relapses.
44. Answer: C. disturbances in affect, perception, and thought content and form.
- Option C: The Diagnostic and Statistic Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th edition, defines schizophrenia as a disturbance in multiple psychological processes that affect thought content and form, perception, affect, sense of self, volition, relationship to the external world, and psychomotor behavior.
- Option A: Loss of identity sometimes occurs but is only one characteristic of the disorder.
- Option B: Multiple personalities typify multiple personality disorder, a dissociative personality disorder. Mood disorders are commonly accompanied by increased or decreased self-esteem.
- Option D: Schizophrenia doesn’t cause a disturbance in sensorium, although the client may exhibit confusion, disorientation, and memory impairment during the acute phase.
45. Answer: C. tell the client specifically and concisely what needs to be done.
- Option C: The client needs to be informed of the activity and when it will be done.
- Option A: Giving the client choices isn’t desirable because he can be manipulative or refuse to do anything.
- Options B and D: Negotiating and preparing the client ahead of time also isn’t therapeutic with this type of client because he may not want to perform the activity.
46. Answer: B. hallucinations.
- Option B: Hallucinations are visual, auditory, gustatory, tactile, or olfactory perceptions that have no basis in reality.
- Option A: Delusions are false beliefs, rather than perceptions, that the client accepts as real.
- Option C: Loose associations are rapid shifts among unrelated ideas.
- Option D: Neologisms are bizarre words that have meaning only to the client.
47. Answer: B. Lower seizure threshold
- Option B: Antipsychotic medications exert an effect on brain neurotransmitters that lowers the seizure threshold and can, therefore, increase the risk of seizure activity.
- Options A and C: Antipsychotics don’t affect insulin production or coagulation time.
- Option D: Heart failure isn’t an adverse effect of antipsychotic agents.
48. Answer: A. highly important or famous.
- Option A: A delusion of grandeur is a false belief that one is highly important or famous.
- Option B: A delusion of persecution is a false belief that one is being persecuted.
- Options C and D: A delusion of reference is a false belief that one is connected to events unrelated to oneself or a belief that one is responsible for the evil in the world.
49. Answer: A. Anxiety
- Option A: For this client, the highest-priority nursing diagnosis is Anxiety (severe to panic-level), manifested by the client’s extreme withdrawal and attempt to protect himself from the environment. The nurse must act immediately to reduce anxiety and protect the client and others from possible injury.
- Options B, C, and D: Impaired verbal communication, manifested by uncommunicativeness; Disturbed thought processes, evidenced by inability to understand the situation; and Self-care deficit: Dressing/grooming, evidenced by a disheveled appearance, are appropriate nursing diagnoses but aren’t the highest priority.
50. Answer: B. question the physician about the order.
- Option B: The nurse must question this order immediately. Thioridazine (Mellaril) has an absolute dosage ceiling of 800 mg/day. Any dosage above this level places the client at high risk for toxic pigmentary retinopathy, which can’t be reversed. As written, the order allows for administering more than the maximum 800 mg/day; it should be corrected immediately before the client’s health is jeopardized.
You may also like these quizzes:
- 3,500+ NCLEX-RN Practice Questions for Free – Tons of practice questions for various topics in the NCLEX-RN!
- Nursing Study Guides
Comprehensive Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing Questions
- Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing #1 | 50 Questions
- Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing #2 | 50 Questions
- Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing #3 | 50 Questions
- Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing #4 | 20 Questions
- Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing #5 | 50 Questions
- Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing #6 | 50 Questions
- Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing #7 | 50 Questions
- Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing #8 | 50 Questions
- Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing #9 | 50 Questions
- Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing #10 | 50 Questions
- Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing #11 | 50 Questions
- Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing #12 | 50 Questions
- Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing #13 | 50 Questions
Growth and Development
- Therapeutic Communication #1 | 15 Questions
- Therapeutic Communication #2 | 20 Questions
- Therapeutic Communication #3 | 15 Questions
Mental Health and Psychiatric Disorders
- Cognitive Impairment Disorders | 15 Questions
- Physical, Sexual Abuse, and Family Violence | 15 Questions
- Stress, Anxiety, and Mind-Body Disorders | 25 Questions
- Personality, Mood Disorders, and Suicidal Behavior | 25 Questions
- Schizophrenic Disorders | 15 Questions
- Substance-Related Disorders | 15 Questions
- Substance Abuse | 25 Questions
- Personality Disorders #1 | 35 Questions
- Personality Disorders #2 | 50 Questions
- Childhood and Adolescent Psychiatric Disorders | 15 Questions
Recommended Books and Resources
Selected NCLEX-RN review books:
- MUST HAVE Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN® Examination, 7th Edition – A must-have book if you're taking the NCLEX-RN. You need to have this.
- Saunders Strategies for Success for the NCLEX – An invaluable guide that will help you master what matters most in passing nursing school and the NCLEX.
- Mosby's Comprehensive Review of Nursing for NCLEX-RN – This book has helped nurses pass the NCLEX exam for over 60 years. Practice with over 600 alternative item question formats.
- Lippincott Q&A Review for NCLEX-RN – A different approach to NCLEX-RN review.
- Prioritization, Delegation, and Assignment: Practice Exercises for the NCLEX Examination – An NCLEX review book that focuses on prioritization, delegation, and patient assignment.