Maternity Nursing is nursing care provided to women and their families during pregnancy, parturition and through the first days of puerperium.
The concepts covered includes: Leopold’s maneuver, fetal development, estimating date of confinement, labor and delivery. This examination can help you know your strengths and weaknesses on the concepts of Maternity Nursing.
- This post contains 50 questions about Maternity Nursing.
- Read each question carefully and give the best answer.
- To add more to the challenge, limit your time to 1 minute per question.
- Answers and rationale are given below.
1. You performed the leopold’s maneuver and found the following: breech presentation, fetal back at the right side of the mother. Based on these findings, you can hear the fetal heart beat (PMI) BEST in which location?
A.Left lower quadrant
B.Right lower quadrant
C.Left upper quadrant
D.Right upper quadrant
2. In Leopold’s maneuver step #1, you palpated a soft broad mass that moves with the rest of the mass. The correct interpretation of this finding is:
A.The mass palpated at the fundal part is the head part.
B.The presentation is breech.
C.The mass palpated is the back
D.The mass palpated is the buttocks.
3. In Leopold’s maneuver step # 3 you palpated a hard round movable mass at the supra pubic area. The correct interpretation is that the mass palpated is:
A.The buttocks because the presentation is breech.
B.The mass palpated is the head.
C.The mass is the fetal back.
D.The mass palpated is the fetal small part
4. The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test is:
C.Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D.Follicle Stimulating hormone
5. The hormone responsible for the maturation of the graafian follicle is:
A.Follicle stimulating hormone
6. The most common normal position of the fetus in utero is:
D.None of the above
7. In the later part of the 3rd trimester, the mother may experience shortness of breath. This complaint maybe explained as:
A.A normal occurrence in pregnancy because the fetus is using more oxygen
B.The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the diaphragm upwards
C.The woman is having allergic reaction to the pregnancy and its hormones
D.The woman maybe experiencing complication of pregnancy
8. Which of the following findings in a woman would be consistent with a pregnancy of two months duration?
A.Weight gain of 6-10 lbs. and presence of striae gravidarum
B.Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency
C.Braxton Hicks contractions and quickening
D.Increased respiratory rate and ballottement
9. Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy?
A.Fetal movement felt by mother
B.Enlargement of the uterus
C.(+) pregnancy test
10. What event occurring in the second trimester helps the expectant mother to accept the pregnancy?
11. Shoes with low, broad heels, plus a good posture will prevent which prenatal discomfort?
12. When a pregnant woman experiences leg cramps, the correct nursing intervention to relieve the muscle cramps is:
A.Allow the woman to exercise
B.Let the woman walk for a while
C.Let the woman lie down and dorsiflex the foot towards the knees
D.Ask the woman to raise her legs
13. From the 33rd week of gestation till full term, a healthy mother should have prenatal check up every:
14. The expected weight gain in a normal pregnancy during the 3rd trimester is
A.1 pound a week
B.2 pounds a week
C.10 lbs a month
D.10 lbs total weight gain in the 3rd trimester
15. In the Bartholomew’s rule of 4, when the level of the fundus is midway between the umbilicus and xyphoid process the estimated age of gestation (AOG) is:
16. The following are ways of determining expected date of delivery (EDD) when the LMP is unknown EXCEPT:
C.Mc Donald’s rule
D.Batholomew’s rule of 4
17. If the LMP is Jan. 30, the expected date of delivery (EDD) is
18. Kegel’s exercise is done in pregnancy in order to:
A.Strengthen perineal muscles
C.Strengthen abdominal muscles
D.Prevent leg varicosities and edema
19. Pelvic rocking is an appropriate exercise in pregnancy to relieve which discomfort?
20. The main reason for an expected increased need for iron in pregnancy is:
A.The mother may have physiologic anemia due to the increased need for red blood cell mass as well as the fetal requires about 350-400 mg of iron to grow
B.The mother may suffer anemia because of poor appetite
C.The fetus has an increased need for RBC which the mother must supply
D.The mother may have a problem of digestion because of pica
21. The diet that is appropriate in normal pregnancy should be high in
A.Protein, minerals and vitamins
B.Carbohydrates and vitamins
C.Proteins, carbohydrates and fats
D.Fats and minerals
22. Which of the following signs will require a mother to seek immediate medical attention?
A.When the first fetal movement is felt
B.No fetal movement is felt on the 6th month
C.Mild uterine contraction
D.Slight dyspnea on the last month of gestation
23. You want to perform a pelvic examination on one of your pregnant clients. You prepare your client for the procedure by:
A.Asking her to void
B.Taking her vital signs and recording the readings
C.Giving the client a perineal care
D.Doing a vaginal prep
24. When preparing the mother who is on her 4th month of pregnancy for abdominal ultrasound, the nurse should instruct her to:
A.Observe NPO from midnight to avoid vomiting
B.Do perineal flushing properly before the procedure
C.Drink at least 2 liters of fluid 2 hours before the procedure and not void until the procedure is done
D.Void immediately before the procedure for better visualization
25. The nursing intervention to relieve “morning sickness” in a pregnant woman is by giving
A.Dry carbohydrate food like crackers
B.Low sodium diet
26. The common normal site of nidation/implantation in the uterus is
A.Upper uterine portion
C.Lower uterine segment
D.Lower cervical segment
27. Mrs. Santos is on her 5th pregnancy and has a history of abortion in the 4th pregnancy and the first pregnancy was a twin. She is considered to be
A.G 4 P 3
B.G 5 P 3
C.G 5 P 4
D.G 4 P 4
28. The following are skin changes in pregnancy EXCEPT:
29. Which of the following statements is TRUE of conception?
A.Within 2-4 hours after intercourse conception is possible in a fertile woman
B.Generally, fertilization is possible 4 days after ovulation
C.Conception is possible during menstruation in a long menstrual cycle
D.To avoid conception, intercourse must be avoided 5 days before and 3 days after menstruation
30. Which of the following are the functions of amniotic fluid?
1.Cushions the fetus from abdominal trauma
2.Serves as the fluid for the fetus
3.Maintains the internal temperature
4.Facilitates fetal movement
A.1 & 3
B.1, 3, 4
C.1, 2, 3
D.All of the above
31. You are performing abdominal exam on a 9th month pregnant woman. While lying supine, she felt breathless, had pallor, tachycardia, and cold clammy skin. The correct assessment of the woman’s condition is that she is:
A.Experiencing the beginning of labor
B.Having supine hypotension
C.Having sudden elevation of BP
D.Going into shock
32. Smoking is contraindicated in pregnancy because
A.Nicotine causes vasodilation of the mother’s blood vessels
B.Carbon monoxide binds with the hemoglobin of the mother reducing available hemoglobin for the fetus
C.The smoke will make the fetus and the mother feel dizzy
D.Nicotine will cause vasoconstriction of the fetal blood vessels
33. Which of the following is the most likely effect on the fetus if the woman is severely anemic during pregnancy?
A.Large for gestational age (LGA) fetus
C.Small for gestational age (SGA) baby
34. Which of the following signs and symptoms will most likely make the nurse suspect that the patient is having hydatidiform mole?
B.Passage of clear vesicular mass per vagina
C.Absence of fetal heart beat
D.Enlargement of the uterus
35. Upon assessment the nurse found the following: fundus at 2 fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, last menstrual period (LMP) 5 months ago, fetal heart beat (FHB) not appreciated. Which of the following is the most possible diagnosis of this condition?
C.Pelvic inflammatory disease
36. When a pregnant woman goes into a convulsive seizure, the MOST immediate action of the nurse to ensure safety of the patient is:
A.Apply restraint so that the patient will not fall out of bed
B.Put a mouth gag so that the patient will not bite her tongue and the tongue will not fall back
C.Position the mother on her side to allow the secretions to drain from her mouth and prevent aspiration
D.Check if the woman is also having a precipitate labor
37. A gravido-cardiac mother is advised to observe bedrest primarily to
A.Allow the fetus to achieve normal intrauterine growth
B.Minimize oxygen consumption which can aggravate the condition of the compromised heart of the mother
C.Prevent perinatal infection
D.Reduce incidence of premature labor
38. A pregnant mother is admitted to the hospital with the chief complaint of profuse vaginal bleeding, AOG 36 wks, not in labor. The nurse must always consider which of the following precautions:
A.The internal exam is done only at the delivery under strict asepsis with a double set-up
B.The preferred manner of delivering the baby is vaginal
C.An emergency delivery set for vaginal delivery must be made ready before examining the patient
D.Internal exam must be done following routine procedure
39. Which of the following signs will distinguish threatened abortion from imminent abortion?
A.Severity of bleeding
B.Dilation of the cervix
C.Nature and location of pain
D.Presence of uterine contraction
40. The nursing measure to relieve fetal distress due to maternal supine hypotension is:
A.Place the mother on semi-fowler’s position
B.Put the mother on left side lying position
C.Place mother on a knee chest position
D.Any of the above
41. To prevent preterm labor from progressing, drugs are usually prescribed to halt the labor. The drugs commonly given are:
A.Magnesium sulfate and terbutaline
B.Prostaglandin and oxytocin
C.Progesterone and estrogen
D.Dexamethasone and prostaglandin
42. In placenta praevia marginalis, the placenta is found at the:
A.Internal cervical os partly covering the opening
B.External cervical os slightly covering the opening
C.Lower segment of the uterus with the edges near the internal cervical os
D.Lower portion of the uterus completely covering the cervix
43. In which of the following conditions can the causative agent pass through the placenta and affect the fetus in utero?
44. Which of the following can lead to infertility in adult males?
45. Papanicolaou smear is usually done to determine cancer of
46. Which of the following causes of infertility in the female is primarily psychological in origin?
47. Before giving a repeat dose of magnesium sulfate to a pre-eclamptic patient, the nurse should assess the patient’s condition. Which of the following conditions will require the nurse to temporarily suspend a repeat dose of magnesium sulfate?
A.100 cc. urine output in 4 hours
B.Knee jerk reflex is (+)2
C.Serum magnesium level is 10mEg/L.
D.Respiratory rate of 16/min
48. Which of the following is TRUE in Rh incompatibility?
A.The condition can occur if the mother is Rh(+) and the fetus is Rh(-)
B.Every pregnancy of an Rh(-) mother will result to erythroblastosis fetalis
C.On the first pregnancy of the Rh(-) mother, the fetus will not be affected
D.RhoGam is given only during the first pregnancy to prevent incompatibility
49. Which of the following are the most commonly assessed findings in cystitis?
A. Frequency, urgency, dehydration, nausea, chills, and flank pain
B. Nocturia, frequency, urgency dysuria, hematuria, fever and suprapubic pain
C. Dehydration, hypertension, dysuria, suprapubic pain, chills, and fever
D. High fever, chills, flank pain nausea, vomiting, dysuria, and frequency
50. Which of the following best reflects the frequency of reported postpartum “blues”?
A. Between 10% and 40% of all new mothers report some form of postpartum blues
B. Between 30% and 50% of all new mothers report some form of postpartum blues
C. Between 50% and 80% of all new mothers report some form of postpartum blues
D. Between 25% and 70% of all new mothers report some form of postpartum blues
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