Digestive System Disorders NCLEX Practice Quiz #2 (100 Questions)

This is another set of NCLEX style questions about the Gastrointestinal and Digestive System Disorders. This 100-item exam will test your knowledge about the diseases Appendicitis and Inflammatory Bowel Diseases.

Make the most of yourself, for that is all there is for you.
~ Ralph Waldo Emerson


Included topics in this practice quiz are:

  • Appendicitis
  • Diverticulitis
  • Inflammatory Bowel Diseases


Follow the guidelines below to make the most out of this exam:

  • Read each question carefully and choose the best answer.
  • You are given one minute per question. Spend your time wisely!
  • Answers and rationales are given below. Be sure to read them.
  • If you need more clarifications, please direct them to the comments section.


Exam Mode

In Exam Mode: All questions are shown, but the results, answers, and rationales (if any) will only be given after you’ve finished the quiz. You are given 1 minute per question, a total of 100 minutes for this exam.

NCLEX Exam: Digestive System Disorders 2 (100 Items)

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Practice Mode

Practice Mode: This is an interactive version of the Text Mode. All questions are given in a single page and correct answers, rationales or explanations (if any) are immediately shown after you have selected an answer.

NCLEX Exam: Digestive System Disorders 2 (100 Items)

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Your answers are highlighted below.

Text Mode

In Text Mode: All questions and answers are given for reading and answering at your own pace. You can also copy this exam and make a print out.

1. Which of the following complications is thought to be the most common cause of appendicitis?


1. A fecalith
2. Bowel kinking
3. Internal bowel occlusion
4. Abdominal bowel swelling

2. Which of the following terms best describes the pain associated with appendicitis?

1. Aching
2. Fleeting
3. Intermittent
4. Steady

3. Which of the following nursing interventions should be implemented to manage a client with appendicitis?

1. Assessing for pain
2. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids
3. Providing discharge teaching
4. Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis

4. Which of the following definitions best describes gastritis?


1. Erosion of the gastric mucosa
2. Inflammation of a diverticulum
3. Inflammation of the gastric mucosa
4. Reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus

5. Which of the following substances is most likely to cause gastritis?

1. Milk
2. Bicarbonate of soda, or baking soda
3. Enteric coated aspirin
4. Nonsteriodal anti-imflammatory drugs

6. Which of the following definitions best describes diverticulosis?

1. An inflamed outpouching of the intestine
2. A noninflamed outpouching of the intestine
3. The partial impairment of the forward flow of intestinal contents
4. An abnormal protrusion of an organ through the structure that usually holds it.

7. Which of the following types of diets is implicated in the development of diverticulosis?


1. Low-fiber diet
2. High-fiber diet
3. High-protein diet
4. Low-carbohydrate diet

8. Which of the following mechanisms can facilitate the development of diverticulosis into diverticulitis?

1. Treating constipation with chronic laxative use, leading to dependence on laxatives
2. Chronic constipation causing an obstruction, reducing forward flow of intestinal contents
3. Herniation of the intestinal mucosa, rupturing the wall of the intestine
4. Undigested food blocking the diverticulum, predisposing the area to bacterial invasion.

9. Which of the following symptoms indicated diverticulosis?

1. No symptoms exist
2. Change in bowel habits
3. Anorexia with low-grade fever
4. Episodic, dull, or steady midabdominal pain

10. Which of the following tests should be administered to a client suspected of having diverticulosis?


1. Abdominal ultrasound
2. Barium enema
3. Barium swallow
4. Gastroscopy

11. Medical management of the client with diverticulitis should include which of the following treatments?

1. Reduced fluid intake
2. Increased fiber in diet
3. Administration of antibiotics
4. Exercises to increase intra-abdominal pressure

12. Crohn’s disease can be described as a chronic relapsing disease. Which of the following areas in the GI system may be involved with this disease?

1. The entire length of the large colon
2. Only the sigmoid area
3. The entire large colon through the layers of mucosa and submucosa
4. The small intestine and colon; affecting the entire thickness of the bowel

13. Which area of the alimentary canal is the most common location for Crohn’s disease?


1. Ascending colon
2. Descending colon
3. Sigmoid colon
4. Terminal ileum

14. Which of the following factors is believed to be linked to Crohn’s disease?

1. Constipation
2. Diet
3. Hereditary
4. Lack of exercise

15. Which of the following factors is believed to cause ulcerative colitis?

1. Acidic diet
2. Altered immunity
3. Chronic constipation
4. Emotional stress

16. Fistulas are most common with which of the following bowel disorders?


1. Crohn’s disease
2. Diverticulitis
3. Diverticulosis
4. Ulcerative colitis

17. Which of the following areas is the most common site of fistulas in client’s with Crohn’s disease?

1. Anorectal
2. Ileum
3. Rectovaginal
4. Transverse colon

18. Which of the following associated disorders may a client with ulcerative colitis exhibit?

1. Gallstones
2. Hydronephrosis
3. Nephrolithiasis
4. Toxic megacolon

19. Which of the following associated disorders may the client with Crohn’s disease exhibit?


1. Ankylosing spondylitis
2. Colon cancer
3. Malabsorption
4. Lactase deficiency

20. Which of the following symptoms may be exhibited by a client with Crohn’s disease?

1. Bloody diarrhea
2. Narrow stools
3. N/V
4. Steatorrhea

21. Which of the following symptoms is associated with ulcerative colitis?

1. Dumping syndrome
2. Rectal bleeding
3. Soft stools
4. Fistulas

22. If a client had irritable bowel syndrome, which of the following diagnostic tests would determine if the diagnosis is Crohn’s disease or ulcerative colitis?


1. Abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan
2. Abdominal x-ray
3. Barium swallow
4. Colonoscopy with biopsy

23. Which of the following interventions should be included in the medical management of Crohn’s disease?

1. Increasing oral intake of fiber
2. Administering laxatives
3. Using long-term steroid therapy
4. Increasing physical activity

24. In a client with Crohn’s disease, which of the following symptoms should not be a direct result of antibiotic therapy?

1. Decrease in bleeding
2. Decrease in temperature
3. Decrease in body weight
4. Decrease in the number of stools

25. Surgical management of ulcerative colitis may be performed to treat which of the following complications?


1. Gastritis
2. Bowel herniation
3. Bowel outpouching
4. Bowel perforation

26. Which of the following medications is most effective for treating the pain associated with irritable bowel disease?

1. Acetaminophen
2. Opiates
3. Steroids
4. Stool softeners

27. During the first few days of recovery from ostomy surgery for ulcerative colitis, which of the following aspects should be the first priority of client care?

1. Body image
2. Ostomy care
3. Sexual concerns
4. Skin care

28. Colon cancer is most closely associated with which of the following conditions?


1. Appendicitis
2. Hemorrhoids
3. Hiatal hernia
4. Ulcerative colitis

29. Which of the following diets is most commonly associated with colon cancer?

1. Low-fiber, high fat
2. Low-fat, high-fiber
3. Low-protein, high-carbohydrate
4. Low carbohydrate, high protein

30. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be performed annually over age 50 to screen for colon cancer?

1. Abdominal CT scan
2. Abdominal x-ray
3. Colonoscopy
4. Fecal occult blood test

31. Radiation therapy is used to treat colon cancer before surgery for which of the following reasons?


1. Reducing the size of the tumor
2. Eliminating the malignant cells
3. Curing the cancer
4. Helping the bowel heal after surgery

32. Which of the following symptoms is a client with colon cancer most likely to exhibit?

1. A change in appetite
2. A change in bowel habits
3. An increase in body weight
4. An increase in body temperature

33. A client has just had surgery for colon cancer. Which of the following disorders might the client develop?

1. Peritonitis
2. Diverticulosis
3. Partial bowel obstruction
4. Complete bowel obstruction

34. A client with gastric cancer may exhibit which of the following symptoms?


1. Abdominal cramping
2. Constant hunger
3. Feeling of fullness
4. Weight gain

35. Which of the following diagnostic tests may be performed to determine if a client has gastric cancer?

1. Barium enema
2. Colonoscopy
3. Gastroscopy
4. Serum chemistry levels

36. A client with gastric cancer can expect to have surgery for resection. Which of the following should be the nursing management priority for the preoperative client with gastric cancer?

1. Discharge planning
2. Correction of nutritional deficits
3. Prevention of DVT
4. Instruction regarding radiation treatment

37. Care for the postoperative client after gastric resection should focus on which of the following problems?


1. Body image
2. Nutritional needs
3. Skin care
4. Spiritual needs

38. Which of the following complications of gastric resection should the nurse teach the client to watch for?

1. Constipation
2. Dumping syndrome
3. Gastric spasm
4. Intestinal spasms

39. A client with rectal cancer may exhibit which of the following symptoms?

1. Abdominal fullness
2. Gastric fullness
3. Rectal bleeding
4. Right upper quadrant pain

40. A client with which of the following conditions may be likely to develop rectal cancer?


1. Adenomatous polyps
2. Diverticulitis
3. Hemorrhoids
4. Peptic ulcer disease

41. Which of the following treatments is used for rectal cancer but not for colon cancer?

1. Chemotherapy
2. Colonoscopy
3. Radiation
4. Surgical resection

42. Which of the following conditions is most likely to directly cause peritonitis?

1. Cholelithiasis
2. Gastritis
3. Perforated ulcer
4. Incarcerated hernia

43. Which of the following symptoms would a client in the early stages of peritonitis exhibit?


1. Abdominal distention
2. Abdominal pain and rigidity
3. Hyperactive bowel sounds
4. Right upper quadrant pain

44. Which of the following laboratory results would be expected in a client with peritonitis?

1. Partial thromboplastin time above 100 seconds
2. Hemoglobin level below 10 mg/dL
3. Potassium level above 5.5 mEq/L
4. White blood cell count above 15,000

45. Which of the following therapies is not included in the medical management of a client with peritonitis?

1. Broad-spectrum antibiotics
2. Electrolyte replacement
3. I.V. fluids
4. Regular diet

46. Which of the following aspects is the priority focus of nursing management for a client with peritonitis?


1. Fluid and electrolyte balance
2. Gastric irrigation
3. Pain management
4. Psychosocial issues

47. A client with irritable bowel syndrome is being prepared for discharge. Which of the following meal plans should the nurse give the client?

1. Low fiber, low-fat
2. High fiber, low-fat
3. Low fiber, high-fat
4. High-fiber, high-fat

48. A client presents to the emergency room, reporting that he has been vomiting every 30 to 40 minutes for the past 8 hours. Frequent vomiting puts him at risk for which of the following?

1. Metabolic acidosis with hyperkalemia
2. Metabolic acidosis with hypokalemia
3. Metabolic alkalosis with hyperkal