Strengthen your knowledge in the concepts of nursing and gain confidence when taking the NCLEX with this practice exam. Here are 20 sample NCLEX questions to answer:
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― Stephen King
Questions on this exam are taken from random various nursing concepts.
Follow the guidelines below to make the most out of this exam:
- Read each question carefully and choose the best answer.
- You are given one minute per question. Spend your time wisely!
- Answers and rationales are given below. Be sure to read them.
- If you need more clarifications, please direct them to the comments section.
In Exam Mode: All questions are shown but the results, answers, and rationales (if any) will only be given after you’ve finished the quiz. You are given 1 minute per question.
NCLEX Practice Exam 13 (20 Questions)
Practice Mode: This is an interactive version of the Text Mode. All questions are given in a single page and correct answers, rationales or explanations (if any) are immediately shown after you have selected an answer. No time limit for this exam.
NCLEX Practice Exam 13 (20 Questions)
In Text Mode: All questions and answers are given for reading and answering at your own pace. You can also copy this exam and make a print out.
1. A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilms tumor, stage II. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage?
A. The tumor is less than 3 cm. in size and requires no chemotherapy.
B. The tumor did not extend beyond the kidney and was completely resected.
C. The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected.
D. The tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be resected.
2. A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Note: More than one answer may be correct.
A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
B. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours.
C. Brown (“tea-colored”) urine.
D. Generalized edema.
3. Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis?
4. An infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age. The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend?
A. Massaging the groin area twice a day until the fluid is gone.
B. Referral to a surgeon for repair.
C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally.
D. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position until the fluid is gone.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral vascular disease (PVD). The patient complains of burning and tingling of the hands and feet and cannot tolerate touch of any kind. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these symptoms?
A. Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to nerve damage.
B. Fluid overload leading to compression of nerve tissue.
C. Sensation distortion due to psychiatric disturbance.
D. Inflammation of the skin on the hands and feet.
6. A nurse is assessing a clinic patient with a diagnosis of hepatitis A. Which of the following is the most likely route of transmission?
A. Sexual contact with an infected partner.
B. Contaminated food.
C. Blood transfusion.
D. Illegal drug use.
7. A leukemia patient has a relative who wants to donate blood for transfusion. Which of the following donor medical conditions would prevent this?
A. A history of hepatitis C five years previously.
B. Cholecystitis requiring cholecystectomy one year previously.
C. Asymptomatic diverticulosis.
D. Crohn’s disease in remission.
8. A physician has diagnosed acute gastritis in a clinic patient. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated for this patient?
9. The nurse is conducting nutrition counseling for a patient with cholecystitis. Which of the following information is important to communicate?
A. The patient must maintain a low calorie diet.
B. The patient must maintain a high protein/low carbohydrate diet.
C. The patient should limit sweets and sugary drinks.
D. The patient should limit fatty foods.
10. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?
A. Slow, deep respirations.
D. Air hunger.
11. A nurse is evaluating a postoperative patient and notes a moderate amount of serous drainage on the dressing 24 hours after surgery. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action?
A. Notify the surgeon about evidence of infection immediately.
B. Leave the dressing intact to avoid disturbing the wound site.
C. Remove the dressing and leave the wound site open to air.
D. Change the dressing and document the clean appearance of the wound site.
12. A patient returns to the emergency department less than 24 hours after having a fiberglass cast applied for a fractured right radius. Which of the following patient complaints would cause the nurse to be concerned about impaired perfusion to the limb?
A. Severe itching under the cast.
B. Severe pain in the right shoulder.
C. Severe pain in the right lower arm.
D. Increased warmth in the fingers.
13. An older patient with osteoarthritis is preparing for discharge. Which of the following information is correct.
A. Increased physical activity and daily exercise will help decrease discomfort associated with the condition.
B. Joint pain will diminish after a full night of rest.
C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications should be taken on an empty stomach.
D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a more effective anti-inflammatory than ibuprofen (Motrin).
A. A female patient being treated for high blood pressure with an ACE inhibitor.
B. A patient who is allergic to iodine/shellfish.
C. A patient on a calorie restricted diet.
D. A patient on bed rest who must maintain a supine position.
15. Which of the following strategies is NOT effective for prevention of Lyme disease?
A. Insect repellant on the skin and clothes when in a Lyme endemic area.
B. Long sleeved shirts and long pants.
C. Prophylactic antibiotic therapy prior to anticipated exposure to ticks.
D. Careful examination of skin and hair for ticks following anticipated exposure.
16. A nurse is performing routine assessment of an IV site in a patient receiving both IV fluids and medications through the line. Which of the following would indicate the need for discontinuation of the IV line as the next nursing action?
A. The patient complains of pain on movement.
B. The area proximal to the insertion site is reddened, warm, and painful.
C. The IV solution is infusing too slowly, particularly when the limb is elevated.
D. A hematoma is visible in the area of the IV insertion site.
17. A hospitalized patient has received transfusions of 2 units of blood over the past few hours. A nurse enters the room to find the patient sitting up in bed, dyspneic and uncomfortable. On assessment, crackles are heard in the bases of both lungs, probably indicating that the patient is experiencing a complication of transfusion. Which of the following complications is most likely the cause of the patient’s symptoms?
A. Febrile non-hemolytic reaction.
B. Allergic transfusion reaction.
C. Acute hemolytic reaction.
D. Fluid overload.
A. Frequent checks for cervical dilation will be needed after the procedure.
B. Contractions may rapidly become stronger and closer together after the procedure.
C. The FHR (fetal heart rate) will be followed closely after the procedure due to the possibility of cord compression.
D. The procedure is usually painless and is followed by a gush of amniotic fluid.
A. Continue to breastfeed frequently, at least every 2-4 hours.
B. Follow up with the infant’s physician within 72 hours of discharge for a recheck of the serum bilirubin and exam.
C. Watch for signs of dehydration, including decreased urinary output and changes in skin turgor.
D. Keep the baby quiet and swaddled, and place the bassinet in a dimly lit area.
20. A nurse is giving discharge instructions to the parents of a healthy newborn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide regarding car safety and the trip home from the hospital?
A. The infant should be restrained in an infant car seat, properly secured in the back seat in a rear-facing position.
B. The infant should be restrained in an infant car seat, properly secured in the front passenger seat.
C. The infant should be restrained in an infant car seat facing forward or rearward in the back seat.
D. For the trip home from the hospital, the parent may sit in the back seat and hold the newborn.
Answers and Rationale
1. Answer: C. The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected.
The staging of Wilms tumor is confirmed at surgery as follows: Stage I, the tumor is limited to the kidney and completely resected; stage II, the tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely resected; stage III, residual non hematogenous tumor is confined to the abdomen; stage IV, hematogenous metastasis has occurred with spread beyond the abdomen; and stage V, bilateral renal involvement is present at diagnosis.
2. Answers: A, B, and C
Acute glomerulonephritis is characterized by high urine specific gravity related to oliguria as well as dark “tea colored” urine caused by large amounts of red blood cells. There is periorbital edema, but generalized edema is seen in nephrotic syndrome, not acute glomerulonephritis.
3. Answer: B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days.
Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus. Glomerular inflammation occurs about 10-14 days after the infection, resulting in scant, dark urine and retention of body fluid. Periorbital edema and hypertension are common signs at diagnosis.
4. Answer: C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally.
A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent tunica vaginalis. Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the clear fluid. In most cases the fluid reabsorbs within the first few months of life and no treatment is necessary. Massaging the area or placing the infant in a supine position would have no effect. Surgery is not indicated.
5. Answer: A. Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to nerve damage.
Patients with peripheral vascular disease often sustain nerve damage as a result of inadequate tissue perfusion. Fluid overload is not characteristic of PVD. There is nothing to indicate psychiatric disturbance in the patient. Skin changes in PVD are secondary to decreased tissue perfusion rather than primary inflammation.
6. Answer: B. Contaminated food.
Hepatitis A is the only type that is transmitted by the fecal-oral route through contaminated food. Hepatitis B, C, and D are transmitted through infected bodily fluids.
7. Answer: A. A history of hepatitis C five years previously.
Hepatitis C is a viral infection transmitted through bodily fluids, such as blood, causing inflammation of the liver. Patients with hepatitis C may not donate blood for transfusion due to the high risk of infection in the recipient. Cholecystitis (gallbladder disease), diverticulosis, and history of Crohn’s disease do not preclude blood donation.
8. Answer: A. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn).
Naproxen sodium is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that can cause inflammation of the upper GI tract. For this reason, it is contraindicated in a patient with gastritis. Calcium carbonate is used as an antacid for the relief of indigestion and is not contraindicated. Clarithromycin is an antibacterial often used for the treatment of Helicobacter pylori in gastritis. Furosemide is a loop diuretic and is contraindicated in a patient with gastritis.
9. Answer: D. The patient should limit fatty foods.
Cholecystitis, inflammation of the gallbladder, is most commonly caused by the presence of gallstones, which may block bile (necessary for fat absorption) from entering the intestines. Patients should decrease dietary fat by limiting foods like fatty meats, fried foods, and creamy desserts to avoid irritation of the gallbladder.
10. Answer: D. Air hunger.
Patients with pulmonary edema experience air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Respiration is fast and shallow and heart rate increases. Stridor is noisy breathing caused by laryngeal swelling or spasm and is not associated with pulmonary edema.
11. Answer: D. Change the dressing and document the clean appearance of the wound site.
A moderate amount of serous drainage from a recent surgical site is a sign of normal healing. Purulent drainage would indicate the presence of infection. A soiled dressing should be changed to avoid bacterial growth and to examine the appearance of the wound. The surgical site is typically covered by gauze dressings for a minimum of 48-72 hours to ensure that initial healing has begun.
12. Answer: C. Severe pain in the right lower arm.
Impaired perfusion to the right lower arm as a result of a closed cast may cause neurovascular compromise and severe pain, requiring immediate cast removal. Itching under the cast is common and fairly benign. Neurovascular compromise in the arm would not cause pain in the shoulder, as perfusion there would not be affected. Impaired perfusion would cause the fingers to be cool and pale. Increased warmth would indicate increased blood flow or infection.
13. Answer: A. Increased physical activity and daily exercise will help decrease discomfort associated with the condition.
Physical activity and daily exercise can help to improve movement and decrease pain in osteoarthritis. Joint pain and stiffness are often at their worst during the early morning after several hours of decreased movement. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever, but does not have anti-inflammatory activity. Ibuprofen is a strong anti-inflammatory, but should always be taken with food to avoid GI distress.
14. Answer: D. A patient on bed rest who must maintain a supine position.
Alendronate can cause significant gastrointestinal side effects, such as esophageal irritation, so it should not be taken if a patient must stay in supine position. It should be taken upon rising in the morning with 8 ounces of water on an empty stomach to increase absorption. The patient should not eat or drink for 30 minutes after administration and should not lie down. ACE inhibitors are not contraindicated with alendronate and there is no iodine allergy relationship.
15. Answer: C. Prophylactic antibiotic therapy prior to anticipated exposure to ticks.
Prophylactic use of antibiotics is not indicated to prevent Lyme disease. Antibiotics are used only when symptoms develop following a tick bite. Insect repellant should be used on skin and clothing when exposure is anticipated. Clothing should be designed to cover as much exposed area as possible to provide an effective barrier. Close examination of skin and hair can reveal the presence of a tick before a bite occurs.
16. Answer: B. The area proximal to the insertion site is reddened, warm, and painful.
An IV site that is red, warm, painful and swollen indicates that phlebitis has developed and the line should be discontinued and restarted at another site. Pain on movement should be managed by maneuvers such as splinting the limb with an IV board or gently shifting the position of the catheter before making a decision to remove the line. An IV line that is running slowly may simply need flushing or repositioning. A hematoma at the site is likely a result of minor bleeding at the time of insertion and does not require discontinuation of the line.
17. Answer: D. Fluid overload.
Fluid overload occurs when then the fluid volume infused over a short period is too great for the vascular system, causing fluid leak into the lungs. Symptoms include dyspnea, rapid respirations, and discomfort as in the patient described. Febrile non-hemolytic reaction results in fever. Symptoms of allergic transfusion reaction would include flushing, itching, and a generalized rash. Acute hemolytic reaction may occur when a patient receives blood that is incompatible with his blood type. It is the most serious adverse transfusion reaction and can cause shock and death.
18. Answer: B, C, and D
Uterine contractions typically become stronger and occur more closely together following amniotomy. The FHR is assessed immediately after the procedure and followed closely to detect changes that may indicate cord compression. The procedure itself is painless and results in the quick expulsion of amniotic fluid. Following amniotomy, cervical checks are minimized because of the risk of infection
19. Answer: D. Keep the baby quiet and swaddled, and place the bassinet in a dimly lit area.
An infant discharged home with hyperbilirubinemia (newborn jaundice) should be placed in a sunny rather than dimly lit area with skin exposed to help process the bilirubin. Frequent feedings will help to metabolize the bilirubin. A recheck of the serum bilirubin and a physical exam within 72 hours will confirm that the level is falling and the infant is thriving and is well hydrated. Signs of dehydration, including decreased urine output and skin changes, indicate inadequate fluid intake and will worsen the hyperbilirubinemia.
20. Answer: A. The infant should be restrained in an infant car seat, properly secured in the back seat in a rear-facing position.
All infants under 1 year of age weighing less than 20 lbs. should be placed in a rear-facing infant car seat secured properly in the back seat. Infant car seats should never be placed in the front passenger seat. Infants should always be placed in an approved car seat during travel, even on that first ride home from the hospital.
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